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NTPC UG — Test 32
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01. The Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, which was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 17 December 2024, amends how many Acts?
A
3
B
4
C
2
D
5
02. Amir Khusrau is known for contributing to which two languages?
A
Sanskrit and Tamil
B
Marathi and Gujarati
C
Persian and Hindavi
D
Bengali and Punjabi
03. Which of the following is the most effective step for mitigating the impact of an earthquake?
A
Seismic zoning and earthquake-resistant buildings
B
Water harvesting
C
Flood barriers
D
Deforestation
04. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court uphold the Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right in 2017?
A
Indira Sawhney vs. Union of India
B
Navtej Singh Johar vs. Union of India
C
Shreya Singhal vs. Union of India
D
Puttaswamy vs. Union of India
05. What is 'Google Beam' introduced under Project Starline?
A
An AI-powered video communication platform aiming to redefine virtual interactions
B
A new satellite launched by Google for global internet coverage
C
A hardware device for enhancing internet speed in rural areas
D
A language translation tool for real-time communication
06. According to Article 335 of the Constitution of India, claims of SCs and STs shall be taken into consideration in matters of:
A
religious freedom Blackbook
B
taxation policies
C
land acquisition
D
public employment
07. What was the main motive of British colonial rule in India?
A
Social development of India
B
Industrialisation of India
C
Economic exploitation of India
D
Welfare of Indian farmers
08. Why is wheat grown in the north-western plains of India?
A
Because it lies close to the coastal water bodies
B
Because the region has red soil with limited annual rainfall
C
Because it receives heavy rainfall during the monsoon
D
Because the region has fertile alluvial soil and cool winters
09. What is the condition for total internal reflection to occur?
A
Light must travel from a rarer medium to a denser medium at an angle of 90°.
B
Light must strike the boundary at 90° to the normal separating any two mediums of different refractive indices.
C
Light must travel from a denser to a rarer medium at an angle greater than the critical angle.
D
The refractive indices of both media must be equal.
10. Which of the following was NOT a reason for the Paleolithic people to move from place to place?
A
Seasonal changes
B
Failure of crops
C
Resource exhaustion
D
Movement of prey animals
11. On 25 April 2025, DRDO achieved a significant milestone by conducting a long-duration ground test of an active cooled scramjet subscale combustor. How long did this test last?
A
120 seconds
B
1,500 seconds
C
500 seconds
D
1,000 seconds
12. Littoral forests are most associated with which kind of ecosystem?
A
Desert ecosystem
B
Wetland ecosystem
C
Grassland ecosystem
D
Tundra ecosystem
13. Which mode of transport is most suitable for transporting heavy and bulky goods over long distances?
A
Pipelines Blackbook
B
Airways
C
Roadways
D
Railways
14. Pondicherry was captured by the Dutch in 1693 but was returned to the French company by the Treaty of Ryswick in _______.
A
1699
B
1741
C
1696
D
1704
15. The introduction of English education in India was promoted through which of the following documents?
A
Macaulay’s Minute
B
Regulating Act
C
Pitts India Act
D
Charter Act of 1813
16. Which of the following statements regarding the Ryotwari settlement is correct? It was developed by Thomas Munro. The settlement was made directly with the cultivators, not zamindars. It was tested on a small scale in the annexed territories of Tipu. Finding it successful, it was then applied in the Ganga plains. Select the correct combination:
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1 only
C
1 and 2 only
D
1, 2 and 3 only
17. What was the other name of Chandragupta II, the renowned ruler of the Gupta dynasty?
A
Karmaputra
B
Vikramaditya
C
Dhruvasena
D
Suryadeva
18. Which of the following Committees is a Standing Committee of the Parliament?
A
Delimitation Commission
B
Select Committee on a Bill
C
Joint Parliamentary Committee on 2G Spectrum
D
Public Accounts Committee
19. Which constitutional Articles ensure the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Courts for enforcing fundamental rights, including RTI?
A
Articles 51 and 356
B
Articles 14 and 15
C
Articles 32 and 226
D
Articles 21 and 39
20. According to the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025, within how many days can an appeal be made in the High Court on the order of the Waqf Tribunal?
A
120 days Blackbook
B
90 days
C
70 days
D
50 days
21. What is the value of one roentgen (R) when expressed in SI units?
A
1.0×10 −3 grays
B
3.7×10 10 disintegrations per second
C
2.58×10 −4 coulombs per kilogram
D
1.6×10 −19 coulombs
22. What did the Supreme Court decide in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) about the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution of India?
A
The Parliament cannot amend any part of the Constitution under any circumstances.
B
The Parliament has unlimited power to amend any part of the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights.
C
The President of India has the ultimate authority to approve or reject constitutional amendments independently.
D
The Parliament can amend the Constitution, but it cannot change or destroy its basic structure or essential features.
23. Who was honoured with the Padma Bhushan in 2025 for their contributions to Indian cinema?
A
Mukesh Khanna
B
Shekhar Kapur
C
Subhash Ghai
D
Aamir Khan
24. The Women’s Kabaddi World Cup scheduled for June 2025, was announced to be hosted in which location in India?
A
Kolkata
B
Chennai
C
Rajgir
D
Ahmedabad
25. Which of the following institutes proposed development of world’s smallest semiconductors chip in 2025?
A
DRDO Research Lab
B
IIT Delhi
C
BARC
D
Indian Institute of Science
26. Which of the following is responsible for causing convectional rainfall?
A
Cold and warm air masses meeting
B
Mountains forcing air to rise
C
Intense surface heating causing air to rise
D
Cyclonic movements
27. The 12 th edition of the Global Terrorism Report Index (GTI) 2025 was published by _____.
A
The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime Blackbook
B
The Institute of Economic and Peace
C
The United Nations Office to Counter Terrorism
D
The UN Counter-Terrorism Centre
28. In which of the following years was the Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) launched with the aim to bring the assisted poor families (Swarozgaris) above the poverty line by organising them into Self Help Groups (SHGs) through a mix of bank credit and government subsidies?
A
1994
B
1999
C
1991
D
2003
29. Who introduced the Railways (Amendment) Bill that was passed in the Rajya Sabha in March 2025?
A
Hardeep Singh Puri
B
Sarbananda Sonowal
C
Kiren Rijiju
D
Ashwini Vaishnaw
30. Which Article of the Indian Constitution states that Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court?
A
Article 39
B
Article 37
C
Article 36
D
Article 38
31. What is the name of India's high-resolution weather forecasting system launched in May 2025?
A
National Weather Grid
B
Bharat Forecasting System
C
Bharat Weather Network
D
India Climate Monitor
32. Which of the following elements provides access to system settings, installed programs, and power options from the desktop?
A
Start Menu
B
Taskbar
C
Notification Area
D
File Explorer
33. Which of the following players was named the Men's Player of the Year at the All India Football Federation (AIFF) Awards in May 2025?
A
Gurpreet Singh Sandhu
B
Subhasish Bose
C
Sunil Chhetri
D
Sandesh Jhingan
34. The Human Development Index emphasises people-centric development. Who is credited with creating the HDI alongside Amartya Sen?
A
Jean Drèze Blackbook
B
Kaushik Basu
C
Mahbub ul Haq
D
Manmohan Singh
35. Which keyboard button is used as a shortcut to rename a selected file or folder in Windows?
A
Ctrl
B
F5
C
Esc
D
F2
36. Jhumur, a traditional folk dance, originated in which of the following Indian states?
A
Punjab
B
Gujarat
C
Assam
D
Kerala
37. What was the main objective of India’s First Five Year Plan (1951–56)?
A
Heavy industrialisation
B
Growth of IT services
C
Agricultural development
D
Privatisation of PSUs
38. Which of the following best defines impulse in mechanics?
A
The rate of change of momentum multiplied by the distance
B
The change in displacement over time
C
The product of mass and velocity
D
The product of force and the time for which it acts
39. How many Khelo India centres did the Delhi government propose to establish in June 2025?
A
Eight
B
Ten
C
Six
D
Two
40. What is the primary cause of southwest monsoon in India?
A
Tidal effects
B
Westerly winds from the Atlantic
C
Local winds from the desert
D
Differential heating of land and sea
41. Five solid cubes, each of volume 3375 cm 3 , are joined end to end to form a cuboid. What is the lateral surface area (in cm 2 ) of the cuboid?
A
2409 Blackbook
B
2700
C
2801
D
2694
42. The income of Raman is ₹60,500. He saves 26% of his income. If his income increases by 17% and expenditure increases by 50%, then his savings will:
A
decrease by ₹12,100
B
decrease by ₹12,095
C
increase by ₹12,098
D
increase by ₹12,099
43. Mr. Sharma, Mr. Gupta and Ms. Sinha invested ₹4,000, ₹8,000 and ₹6,000, respectively, in a business. Mr. Sharma left the business after 6 months. If after 8 months, there was a gain of ₹34,000, then what will be the share of Mr. Gupta?
A
₹12,000
B
₹16,000
C
₹20,000
D
₹14,000
44. A mobile phone is marked at ₹20,000. During a festive sale, a store offers two successive discounts — 15% first and then 10%. What is the final selling price of the mobile?
A
₹15,300
B
₹15,000
C
₹15,500
D
₹16,000
45. A number, when decreased by 7%, gives 3720. The number is:
A
12000
B
8000
C
2000
D
4000
46. If 2 times the age of Ram is 14 years more than 6 times the age of Ramya, and 4 times the age of Ramya is 4 years less than the age of Ram, then what is the difference (in years) between the ages of Ram and Ramya?
A
17 Blackbook
B
13
C
14
D
15
47. In covering a distance of 156 km, Abhay takes 5 hours more than Sameer. If Abhay doubles his speed, then he would take 8 hours less than Sameer. Abhay's speed is:
A
1 km/hr
B
7 km/hr
C
6 km/hr
D
16 km/hr
48. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 11 and 792, respectively. If one number is 88, then find the other number.
A
93
B
89
C
97
D
99
49. Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹1,200 at an interest rate of 4% per month for 1 month.
A
₹8
B
₹48
C
₹4
D
₹24
50. If the third proportional of 4 and 22 be x, then what is the value of x?
A
119
B
122
C
123
D
121
51. The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 80 and the third number is 102. Find the average of the remaining two numbers.
A
182
B
196.5
C
183
D
197.5
52. If the difference between an interior angle and exterior angle of a regular polygon is 140°, then the number of sides of the polygon is equal to:
A
12
B
16
C
14
D
18
53. The average runs scored by a batsman in 23 matches is 42. In the next 10 matches, the batsman scored an average of 14 runs. Find his average runs scored (rounded off to two decimal places) in all the 33 matches.
A
32.52 Blackbook
B
35.52
C
33.52
D
34.52
54. Kushal and Brijesh together invested ₹63,300 in a business. At the end of the year, out of a total profit of ₹17,600, Brijesh's share was ₹2,200. What was the difference between their investments?
A
₹46,154
B
₹47,475
C
₹45,979
D
₹48,876
55. If the interest earned during the 2 nd year on a certain sum is ₹5,214, and the rate of interest is 10% per annum compounded annually, then the sum is:
A
₹47,755
B
₹46,650
C
₹47,320
D
₹47,400
56. If the 6-digit number N01M22 is divisible by 11, then which of the options below can give a possible correct relation between M and N?
A
M = N
B
M + N = -1
C
M - N = 5
D
M - N = 1
57. Find the surface area (rounded off to the nearest integer) of a sphere of radius 6.5 cm. (Take π = 22/7)
A
530 cm 2
B
531 cm 2
C
540 cm 2
D
534 cm 2
58. The product of two positive numbers is 10125. If the first number is five times the second number, then the sum of the two numbers is:
A
286
B
264
C
270
D
265
59. A man driving a car at a speed of 67 km/hr crosses a bridge in 3 minutes. Find the length of the bridge.
A
3.35 km Blackbook
B
2.84 km
C
2.51 km
D
2.46 km
60. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 22?
A
7467614
B
8132950
C
6580350
D
6136901
61. The sum of two numbers is 52 and their LCM is 627. The two numbers are:
A
19, 33
B
24, 28
C
17, 35
D
12, 40
62. A company offers three schemes of successive discounts. First: 25%, 10% Second: 20 %, 15% Third: 30%, 5% Which scheme is best for the company?
A
All the schemes are same
B
First scheme
C
Third scheme
D
Second scheme
63. Evaluate: (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-10) + (-2) × 6
A
-29
B
-30
C
-26
D
-27
64. Prabash starts from Point A and drives 6 km towards east. He then takes a left turn, drives 4 km, turns left and drives 9 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 7 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (Note: All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
A
2 km to the north
B
3 km to the north
C
4 km to the north
D
1 km to the north
65. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 31 42 57 76 99 ?
A
126
B
128
C
127
D
125
66. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and Blackbook 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (196, 142, 338) (145, 198, 343)
A
(184, 130, 318)
B
(164, 178, 352)
C
(149, 152, 300)
D
(183, 209, 392)
67. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. BURN - BNRU - NRUB SONG - SGNO - GNOS
A
RAIL - ARIL - LAIR
B
CODE - COED - ODEC
C
CAME - CEMA - EMAC
D
WINK - WNIK - KNIW
68. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Note: All numbers are single digit numbers only.) (Left) 4 7 + $ 1 * £ 3 & % 5 @ Ω 6 2 9 # 8 (Right) How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by another symbol?
A
5
B
2
C
4
D
3
69. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 1200, 1200, 1800, 3600, 9000, ?
A
15000
B
18000
C
27000
D
12000
70. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
MO-RK
B
GI-LE
C
DF-IC
D
JL-OH
71. Each of the digits in the number 7231456 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. What will be the sum of the digits which are second from the left and second from the right in the new number thus formed?
A
5 Blackbook
B
7
C
10
D
8
72. Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. TYP : UZQ ETQ : FUR
A
OUT : PVU
B
WER : ZFS
C
UIP : VJR
D
ELA : FCD
73. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? RUM ORJ LOG ILD ?
A
FJB
B
FIA
C
FJA
D
FIB
74. D is married to N. K is the daughter of X. X is the father of D. D is the mother of G. G is the brother of I. I is the sister of E. I is married to H. How is X related to E?
A
Husband's father
B
Father
C
Mother's father
D
Father's father
75. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some kites are hats. No hat is a ant. Conclusion (I): Some kites are ants. Conclusion (II): Some hats are kites.
A
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
B
Only conclusion (II) follows.
C
Only conclusion (I) follows.
D
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
76. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements. Blackbook Statements: All actors are dancers. Some dancers are singers. Conclusions: (I) All dancers are actors. (II) No singer is a dancer.
A
Only conclusion (I) follows.
B
Only conclusion (II) follows.
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
77. In a certain code language, ‘GLUE’ is coded as ‘4627’ and ‘LOAD’ is coded as ‘1375’. What is the code for ‘L’ in the given code language?
A
3
B
1
C
6
D
7
78. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 195 189 180 174 165 159 ?
A
149
B
150
C
153
D
155
79. Atul starts from his home and drives 5 km towards north. He then takes a left turn, drives 6 km, turns left, and drives 4 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 5 km and reaches his office. In which direction is the office with respect to his home? (Note: All turns are 90° turns only, unless specified.)
A
East
B
North-west
C
North
D
West
80. If 2 is added to each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 2736158, what will be the sum of the digits that are third from the left and third from the right in the new number thus formed?
A
10
B
8
C
7
D
12
81. Seven boxes F, G, H, M, N, O and P are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.Only three boxes are kept below H. Only two boxes are kept between H and O. Only N is kept above G. F is kept at some place below M and at some place above P. Which box is kept at second position from the bottom?
A
G
B
N
C
F
D
P
82. Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only F is kept above A. Only two boxes are kept between A and D. Only B is kept below
A
2
B
1
C
3
D
4
83. FNJG is related to DLHE in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, IQMJ is related to GOKH. To which of the given options is MUQN related, following the same logic?
A
KSOL
B
KSLO
C
SKOL
D
SKLO
84. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
TYD
B
UZE
C
INS
D
QBA
85. What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘÷’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−‘ and ‘+’ are interchanged? 117 + 16 − 10 × 2 ÷ 2 − 68 + 10 × 5 − 9 = ?
A
124
B
168
C
186
D
96
86. Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only three boxes are kept below G. Only two boxes are kept between G and
A
1
B
3
C
2
D
4
87. What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? BJS CLT DNU EPV ?
A
GRV
B
GSV
C
FRW
D
FRV
88. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. All numbers are single-digits. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) & 1 # 6 * ^ @ 3 & $ 7 Ω $ 2 # 6 @ 2 % 9 (Right) Blackbook If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which of the following will be third from the left?
A
1
B
7
C
6
D
3
89. Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit between D and C. Only G sits to the right of E. Only one person sits between C and E. A sits at some place to the right of F but at some place to the left of B. How many people sit to the right of A?
A
2
B
5
C
4
D
3
90. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster pair.)
A
GC-OK
B
TP-AX
C
NJ-VR
D
HD-PL
91. Seven people, A, B, C, D, P, Q and R, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit between Q and R. Only D sits to the right of A. Only one person sits between R and A. B sits at some place to the right of P but at some place to the left of C. How many people sit between C and P?
A
One
B
Two
C
Four
D
Three
92. In a certain code language, ‘DEAR’ is coded as ‘4627’ and ‘TURN’ is coded as ‘1375’. What is the code for ‘R’ in the given code language?
A
5
B
7
C
6
D
1
93. If + means ‘subtraction’, − means ‘division’, ÷ means ‘multiplication’, × means ‘addition’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 9 − 3 × 756 + 84 ÷ 3 = ?
A
510
B
509
C
507
D
508
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