Home
📝 TNPSC
📊 Maths
🚆 RRB
💼 Jobs
📚 Notes
📄 Docs
🏆 Tournament
LIVE
👥 Groups
Login
Register Free
🎯 Quiz Universe
Login
✕
👤
Welcome!
Login to access all features
Free Platform
TNPSC Prep
Main Menu
🏠
Home
📝
TNPSC
📊
Maths Tests
⚡
Maths Practice
🚆
RRB Exams
💼
Job Alerts
📚
Study Notes
📄
Documents
📋
OMR Tests
🏆
Tournament
LIVE
🥇
Leaderboard
👥
Study Groups
Account
🔐
Login
✏️
Register Free
Info
❓
Help & Support
NEW
ℹ️
About Us
📬
Contact Us
🔒
Privacy Policy
📋
Terms & Conditions
⚠️
Disclaimer
NTPC UG — Test 23
00:00
1
📋 Questions
✕
Answered
Current
Unanswered
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
01. A flat or gently sloping surface left behind after river erosion, often with some resistant remnants, is known as:
A
Monadnock
B
Plateau
C
Floodplain
D
Peneplain
02. Wind energy is best harnessed in which of the following Indian states?
A
Madhya Pradesh
B
Bihar
C
Jharkhand
D
Gujarat
03. Which of the following practices is most suitable for preventing land degradation in arid areas?
A
Contour ploughing
B
Shifting cultivation
C
Shelterbelt plantation
D
Terrace farming
04. What was the focus of World Water Day, observed globally on 22 March 2025?
A
Water for peace
B
Water and climate change
C
Accelerating change
D
Glacier preservation
05. In some file management programs, which shortcut key combination is used to copy a selected item instead of moving it?
A
Alt + Del
B
Alt + F4
C
Alt + Ins
D
Alt + Tab
06. Which institution played a major role in supporting India’s liberalisation policy during the 1991 crisis?
A
Reserve Bank of India Blackbook
B
Election Commission of India
C
NITI Aayog
D
International Monetary Fund (IMF)
07. In the post-reform era, fiscal prudence became central to macroeconomic stability. Which of the following Acts was enacted in 2003 to institutionalise fiscal discipline in India?
A
Companies Act
B
Banking Regulation Act
C
FEMA Act
D
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act
08. Which of the following options best describes the main function of an operating system?
A
Compiling high-level code
B
Displaying web pages
C
Managing computer hardware and software resources
D
Performing arithmetic operations
09. Which of the following powers is exercised by the Union Council of Ministers in India?
A
Conducting judicial reviews
B
Supervising state legislatures
C
Declaring war
D
Framing policies and advising the President
10. The Northern Plain of India is formed by the interplay of the three major river systems, namely the Indus, the Ganga and the _______, along with their tributaries.
A
Brahmaputra
B
Narmada
C
Damodar
D
Mahanadi
11. What is the relation between the frequency (f) and time period (T) of a sound wave?
A
f = T
B
f = 1/T
C
f = T/2
D
f = 2T
12. In organising the Rowlatt Satyagraha, Mahatma Gandhi was assisted by Abdul Bari of the Firangi Ulema group based in _________.
A
Kanpur
B
Patna
C
Aligarh
D
Lucknow
13. The All-India Services Act, 1951, allows which authority to frame rules for All-India service recruitment?
A
President of India Blackbook
B
Central Government
C
The Parliament of India
D
Union Public Service Commission
14. Who became the youngest player to score over 700 runs in a single IPL season in 2025?
A
Sai Sudharsan
B
Ruturaj Gaikwad
C
Yashasvi Jaiswal
D
Shubman Gill
15. Dating back to 1639-1640 CE, which construction, located in Chennai, India, is historically known as the primary English defense post?
A
Sadras Dutch Fort
B
Fort St. George
C
Fort St. David
D
Gingee Fort
16. What is the primary objective of the Yashoda AI initiative launched by the National Commission for Women (NCW) in May 2025?
A
To promote traditional crafts among women artisans
B
To provide financial assistance to women entrepreneurs
C
To enhance AI literacy and digital awareness among women
D
To offer healthcare services to rural women
17. In which year did Paul Ehrlich receive the Nobel Prize for discovering the first chemotherapeutic agent, salvarsan?
A
1905
B
1908
C
1913
D
1901
18. Sanskrit language is mainly used for creating:
A
folk songs and pop music
B
tribal stories
C
modern novels
D
ancient religious texts and epics
19. How many seats did the BJP win in the February 2025 Delhi Assembly elections?
A
48
B
22
C
62
D
70
20. Which Indian Billiard player won his 28 th World Billiards Title at IBSF World Billiards Championship in Doha, Qatar in November 2024?
A
Rupesh Shah
B
Pankaj Advani
C
Sourav Kothari
D
Yasin Merchant
21. Which of the following is a government initiative aimed at improving urban infrastructure in Indian cities?
A
Atal Bhujal Yojana Blackbook
B
Smart Cities Mission
C
Swachh Bharat Gramin
D
Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
22. What significant space-related agreement did Bangladesh join in 2025?
A
The Moon Treaty
B
The Outer Space Treaty
C
The Artemis Accords
D
The SpaceX International Partnership
23. What was a key reform introduced by the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025?
A
Clergy-only Waqf management
B
Audit exemption for Waqf assets
C
Abolition of old Waqf properties
D
Inclusion of Muslim women on Waqf Boards
24. Which missile defence system, named Sudarshan Chakra, was used by India to intercept drones and missiles during Pakistan’s attempted strikes in May 2025?
A
Prithvi Air Defence
B
S-400 Triumf
C
Akashteer
D
Barak 8
25. India recently assumed the Chairmanship of which organisation from Bangladesh during the 13 th Governing Council Meeting held in Malé, Maldives?
A
South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
B
Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)
C
Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)
D
Bay of Bengal Inter-Governmental Organisation (BOBP-IGO)
26. Under Akbar, who was responsible for revenue and financial supervision across the entire Mughal Empire?
A
Vakil
B
Subadar
C
Mir Bakhshi
D
Diwan-i-Kul
27. What happens to excess carbohydrates in the body?
A
They are turned into proteins.
B
They are converted into amino acids and stored.
C
They are converted into fat and stored.
D
They are excreted immediately.
28. What is the key reason governments promote Public-Private Partnerships in infrastructure development?
A
To address fiscal constraints and reduce liabilities
B
To improve efficiency and innovation through private sector expertise
C
Due to lack of trained manpower
D
To privatise all national resources
29. Researchers of which university produced India’s first gene-edited sheep?
A
Chandigarh University
B
IIT Madras Blackbook
C
Sher-e-Kashmir University
D
IIT Kanpur
30. Which of the following launch vehicles did ISRO use for its 100 th mission in 2025?
A
PSLV C58
B
GSLV F15
C
SSLV D2
D
LV Mk III
31. Which one of the acts is known as the first step towards constitutional development in India?
A
Indian Councils Act, 1861
B
Regulating Act, 1773
C
Pitt’s India Act, 1784
D
Charter Act, 1813
32. Which of the following freedom fighters led the Rampa Rebellion of 1922 against forest laws?
A
Ashfaqullah Khan
B
Alluri Sitarama Raju
C
Jatindra Nath Das
D
Surya Sen
33. Which of the following Articles was introduced by the 86 th Amendment to impose a duty on parents to educate children?
A
Article 51A(k)
B
Article 45
C
Article 39A
D
Article 21A
34. Which season in India is characterised by high temperature and low humidity?
A
Retreating Monsoon
B
Cold Weather Season
C
Southwest Monsoon
D
Hot Weather Season
35. What was one of the major characteristics of India’s economy at the time of independence in 1947?
A
Self-sufficiency in manufacturing
B
Strong trade surplus
C
Heavy dependence on agriculture and low productivity
D
Dominance of the services sector
36. In May 2025, India approved the execution model for which indigenous fifth-generation fighter aircraft program?
A
Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA)
B
Medium Combat Aircraft (MCA)
C
HAL Twin Engine Deck Based Fighter (TEDBF)
D
Tejas Mk2
37. In which of the following cities was the Sepak Takraw 2025 World Cup (ISTAF) held in India in March 2025?
A
Mumbai Blackbook
B
Patna
C
Bengaluru
D
New Delhi
38. Which Rajput ruler founded the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty in Malwa during the 8 th century CE?
A
Nagabhatta I
B
Mihira Bhoja
C
Vatsaraja
D
Dhruva
39. Who led the Tamar tribal revolts against the British in India?
A
Tilka Manjhi
B
Sidhu Murmu
C
Ganga Narain Singh
D
Bhola Nath Sahay
40. Which of the following is a primary function of the District Courts in India?
A
Advising the President of India
B
Hearing appeals from lower courts within the district
C
Settling disputes between Union and State governments
D
Issuing writs to enforce fundamental rights (without High Court)
41. The average of first 150 odd natural numbers, is:
A
150.5
B
151
C
150
D
149.5
42. If the interest earned during the 2 nd year on a certain sum is ₹3,342, and the rate of interest is 20% per annum compounded annually, then the sum is:
A
₹13,285
B
₹13,925
C
₹14,900
D
₹14,075
43. If 2 times a son's age is added to his father's age, the sum is 36 years. If 2.5 times the father's age is added to the son's age, the sum is 72 years. What is the father's age (in years)?
A
27
B
31
C
23
D
32
44. The HCF of two numbers is 9 and the product of the two numbers is 8100. How many pairs of numbers satisfy the given conditions?
A
5 Blackbook
B
3
C
2
D
4
45. The product of two consecutive positive natural numbers is 650. The greater of the two numbers is:
A
29
B
43
C
26
D
31
46. Prashant and Nisha have to travel from Delhi to Kanpur in their respective cars. Prashant is driving at 72 km/hr while Nisha is driving at 64 km/hr. Find the time taken by Nisha to reach Kanpur if Prashant takes 16 hours.
A
24 hours
B
18 hours
C
8 hours
D
20 hours
47. An item is marked at ₹1,200. Successive discounts of 20% and 10% are given. What is the final selling price?
A
₹864
B
₹960
C
₹900
D
₹880
48. Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹1,200 at an interest rate of 3% per month in 7 months.
A
252
B
41
C
21
D
42
49. The H.C.F. and the L.C.M. of two numbers are 51 and 306 respectively. If one of the numbers is 102, find the other one.
A
102
B
204
C
175
D
153
50. Nitin bought some sharpeners at the rate of ₹180/dozen. He sold them for ₹20 each. His profit percentage is ______% (rounded off to two decimal places).
A
33.33
B
35.33
C
31.33
D
37.33
51. Aanya has to reach Bangalore which is 861 km away in 15 hours. His starting speed for 8 hours was 37 km/hr. For the next 136 km his speed was 34 km/hr. By what speed he must travel now so as to reach Bangalore in the decided time of 15 hours?
A
141 km/hr
B
143 km/hr
C
147 km/hr
D
146 km/hr
52. Evaluate: 16 + 12 ÷ 6 − 3 × 4
A
8
B
5
C
9
D
6
53. If the 6-digit number N65M04 is divisible by 11, then which of the options below can give a possible correct relation between M and N?
A
M - N = 1 Blackbook
B
M = N
C
M - N = -5
D
M + N = 5
54. Which of the following numbers divides 311916399?
A
7
B
13
C
2
D
3
55. A shirt is marked at ₹800. A shopkeeper offers a discount of 25% on it. What is the selling price of the shirt after the discount?
A
₹600
B
₹650
C
₹700
D
₹750
56. In an election between two candidates, 80% of the registered voters cast their vote and 20% of the votes polled were found invalid. The winning candidate got 60% of the valid votes and won the election by a margin of 2144 votes. How many voters were registered?
A
16749
B
16747
C
16753
D
16750
57. An amount of ₹616 is divided among three persons in the ratio of 5 : 12 : 11. The difference between the largest and the smallest shares (in ₹) in the distribution is:
A
154
B
86
C
69
D
112
58. The average weight (in kg) of a family of five members whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 75 kg and 35 kg is:
A
53
B
51
C
52
D
50
59. If 18% of first number is equal to two-fifths of second number, what is the ratio of first number to the second number?
A
20 : 9
B
16 : 10
C
21 : 6
D
18 : 7
60. The perimeter of a square is 340 m. Its area (in m 2 ) is:
A
7204
B
7200
C
7207
D
7225
61. Aman and Pawan together invested ₹76,500 in a business. At the end of the year, out of a total profit of ₹20,000, Pawan's share was ₹4,800. What was the difference between their investments?
A
₹39,780
B
₹40,609
C
₹39,923
D
₹41,601
62. If 2 is added to each even digit and 4 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number 925746, what will be difference between the highest and second lowest digits thus formed?
A
5
B
4
C
6
D
7
63. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) ^ > & 5 > ^ 3 6 < + $ % * % 7 1 % 2 + 2 1 (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a number?
A
One
B
Three
C
None
D
Two
64. In a certain code language, ‘WHAT’ is coded as ‘3157’ and ‘HORN’ is coded as ‘2416’. What is the code for ‘H’ in the given code language?
A
2
B
6
C
1
D
5
65. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? UTP CBX KJF SRN ?
A
VZA
B
AZV
C
AVZ
D
VAZ
66. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only two people sit between C and G when counted from the left of G. A sits third to the left of D. E sits to the immediate right of D. E sits second to the left of C. B is an immediate neighbour of A. How many people sit between B and E when counted from the right of B? Blackbook
A
3
B
1
C
2
D
4
67. What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged, and ‘−’ and ‘×’ are interchanged? 24 + 3 × 10 − 2 ÷ 41 = ?
A
36
B
22
C
41
D
29
68. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
TQ−PM
B
ZW−VS
C
NK−II
D
IF−EB
69. LEAV is related to SLHC in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, NGCX is related to UNJE. To which of the given options is IBXS related, following the same logic?
A
PIEZ
B
PZEW
C
PEZI
D
PIZE
70. In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the brother of B’, A @ B means ‘A is the wife of B’, A ¥ B means ‘A is the son of B’ and A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’. How is D related to G if 'D ¥ O ÷ I + N @ G’?
A
Wife's brother
B
Wife's brother's wife
C
Wife's father's sister
D
Wife's father
71. VALG is related to YYOE in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, BWRC is related to EUUA. To which of the given options is HSXY related, following the same logic?
A
KQAW
B
LQBW
C
LPZV
D
JRBU
72. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Blackbook Statements: All chisels are hammers. No hammer is a maize. Conclusions (I): No chisel is a maize. Conclusions (II): Some maize are hammers.
A
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
B
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
C
Only conclusion (I) follows.
D
Only conclusion (II) follows.
73. PXTQ is related to NVRO in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, MUQN is related to KSOL. To which of the given options is JRNK related, following the same logic?
A
PHLI
B
HPIL
C
PHIL
D
HPLI
74. Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. F is kept second from the bottom. Only three boxes are kept between F and
A
3
B
2
C
1
D
4
75. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
ZJ - DD
B
CU - GO
C
HR - ML
D
XB - BV
76. In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) 30, 125 25, 105
A
40, 155
B
35, 130
C
20, 85
D
15, 60
77. If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 21 + 70 × 10 ÷ 5 − 2 = ? Blackbook
A
24
B
36
C
18
D
42
78. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? CE 17 GI 19 KM 23 OQ 29 ?
A
RU 37
B
RT 37
C
ST 37
D
SU 37
79. Vijay starts from his home and drives 5 km towards north. He then takes a left turn, drives 5 km, turns left, and drives 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 3 km and reaches his office. In which direction is the office with respect to his home? (Note: All turns are 90° turns only, unless specified.)
A
North
B
West
C
South-west
D
North-west
80. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 9 23 49 83 129 183 ?
A
294
B
254
C
250
D
249
81. All 45 people are standing in a row facing north. Tina is 20 th from the right end while Belamit is 28 th from the left end. How many people are there between Tina and Belamit?
A
Three
B
Four
C
One
D
Two
82. Vslam starts from Point A and drives 17 km towards West. He then takes a left turn, drives 9 km, turns right and drives 5 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 12 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 22 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
4 km to the East
B
1 km to the South
C
2 km to the West
D
3 km to the South
83. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 96 105 115 126 138 ?
A
151 Blackbook
B
120
C
150
D
152
84. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 45 63 87 105 129 147 171 ?
A
189
B
193
C
185
D
197
85. Seven people, A, B, C, D, P, Q and R, are sitting in a row, facing north. No one sits to the left of Q. Only four people sit between Q and D. Only three people sit to the right of R. C sits to the immediate left of P. B is not an immediate neighbour of R. Who sits third to the left of B?
A
A
B
R
C
D
D
C
86. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
YG - BB
B
ND - QX
C
AP - DK
D
SJ - VE
87. Seven boxes C, D, E, M, N, O and P are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only two boxes are kept between O and M. Only E is kept above N. No box is kept below M. C is kept at some place below D but at some place above P. Which box is kept third above P?
A
C
B
N
C
M
D
D
88. If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number 8265943, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
A
Three
B
Two
C
One
D
None
89. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 617 259 165 784 349 (Right) (Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) Blackbook (NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.) What will be the resultant if the third digit of the lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of the highest number?
A
3
B
1
C
2
D
4
90. In a certain code language, ‘BIRD’ is coded as ‘7394’ and ‘DRIP’ is coded as ‘4392’. What is the code for ‘P’ in the given code language?
A
9
B
4
C
2
D
3
91. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements. Statement: Some Googles are apples. Some apples are Amazons. Conclusions: I. Some Googles are Amazons. II. No Google is an Amazon.
A
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
B
Only conclusion (II) follows.
C
Only conclusion (I) follows.
D
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
0
Done
91
Left
91
Total
Submit Test
✅
Submit Test?
Once submitted you cannot change your answers.
0
Answered
0
Skipped
91
Total
Review
Submit Now
Home
TNPSC
Contest
RRB
Tests
Login
🔒
Login required
Please login to access the test series and start attempting tests.
🔐 Login & Continue
Maybe later