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NTPC UG — Test 22
00:00
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01. Which Constitutional Amendment Act restored the Parliament's power to amend Fundamental Rights?
A
52 nd Amendment Act, 1985
B
42 nd Amendment Act, 1976
C
44 th Amendment Act, 1978
D
24 th Amendment Act, 1971
02. Simone Biles, the winner of the 2025 Laureus World Sportswoman of the Year award, is associated with the sport of _____.
A
swimming
B
track and field
C
gymnastics
D
tennis
03. The Faraizi Movement's no-tax campaign primarily targeted the ________.
A
Mughal officials
B
Local tribal rulers
C
Indigo planters and zamindars
D
British Army
04. Where was the third Meeting of States Parties to the Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW) held in 2025?
A
Brussels
B
Geneva
C
New York City
D
Vienna
05. Who among the following created history by scoring 9000 runs in T20 in May 2025?
A
Rohit Sharma
B
KL Rahul
C
Tilak Verma
D
Virat Kohli
06. The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Ninth Amendment) Bill, introduced in the Lok Sabha on 17 December 2024, seeks to empower:
A
the President to declare different proclamations of national emergency on different grounds simultaneously Blackbook
B
the State to make any special provision for the advancement of the economically weaker section (EWS) of citizens
C
the Parliament to make laws to deal with anti-national activities
D
the Election Commission to conduct elections for Lok Sabha and all State Assemblies at the same time
07. Wildlife sanctuaries in India are primarily established for:
A
promoting eco-tourism
B
generating forest revenue
C
urban development
D
protecting endangered species
08. What was the name of the legend who spearheaded the Munda Rebellion?
A
Nirmal Munda
B
Prakash Munda
C
Birsa Munda
D
Kariya Munda
09. In 2025, which of the following disputes between two countries escalated due to increased military activities near the Line of Actual Control (LAC)?
A
India–Nepal dispute over Kalapani
B
India–Pakistan dispute over Siachen
C
India–China dispute in Eastern Ladakh
D
India–Sri Lanka dispute over Katchatheevu Island
10. Which of the following agencies launched the ‘Medical Innovations Patent Mitra’ in 2025?
A
DST
B
ICMR
C
NITI Aayog
D
AIIMS New Delhi
11. Which mountain range forms the eastern boundary of the Deccan Plateau?
A
Eastern Ghats
B
Vindhya Range
C
Satpura Range
D
Western Ghats
12. In 2025 news, Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS) primarily impacts which part of the human body system?
A
Circulatory system
B
Peripheral nervous system
C
Immune system
D
Digestive system
13. Who is best known for being associated with the theory of quantum mechanics, published in 1925?
A
Wolfgang Pauli Blackbook
B
Ernest Rutherford
C
Heinrich Rudolf Hertz
D
Werner Heisenberg
14. An economist and a renowned literary personality with a vast reader base in India and abroad, Prof. Arunoday Saha, who was honoured with Padma Shri in 2025, belongs to which Indian state?
A
Mizoram
B
Tripura
C
West Bengal
D
Odisha
15. Which organisation successfully developed an indigenous nanoporous multilayered polymeric membrane for high-pressure seawater desalination in May 2025?
A
Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO)
B
Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
C
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC)
D
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
16. In which of the following years was Indian Universities Act enacted to impose stiff control over Indian Universities?
A
1893
B
1900
C
1904
D
1886
17. Women play a significant role in rural livelihoods and household management. What is the minimum percentage of seats reserved for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions?
A
25%
B
50%
C
43%
D
33%
18. Consider the following vitamins.
A
Only 2 and 3
B
Only 1 and 4
C
Only 1, 2 and 3
D
Only 1 and 2
19. Which type of unemployment is most prevalent in Indian agriculture during the non- sowing season?
A
Seasonal Unemployment
B
Cyclical Unemployment
C
Disguised Unemployment
D
Structural Unemployment
20. Which Article empowers the High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of Legal and Fundamental Rights?
A
Article 124 Blackbook
B
Article 136
C
Article 226
D
Article 324
21. Which of the following steps correctly describes how to move a file or folder using the Cut and Paste method?
A
Select file → Edit → Cut or Ctrl + X → Go to new location → Edit → Paste or Ctrl + V
B
Select file → Press Ctrl + C → Go to new location → Press Delete
C
Open file → Click Close → Open Recycle Bin
D
Select file → Right-click → Copy → Go to new location → Right-click → Paste
22. What is the main advantage of road transport over railways?
A
Suitable for long distances
B
Cheaper and faster than railway transport over long distances
C
Door-to-door service
D
Environment-friendly
23. How many new judges were sworn-in to the Supreme Court of India on 30 May 2025?
A
three
B
six
C
four
D
two
24. The governor of a province (bhukti) in the Pala and Pratihara empire was called:
A
Koshtapala
B
Uparika
C
Rashtrapati
D
Visayapati
25. Which Article of the Constitution mandates the establishment of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes?
A
Article 340
B
Article 335
C
Article 342
D
Article 338
26. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) provides legal assurance of wage employment in rural areas. Under MGNREGA, how many days of guaranteed wage employment per year is a rural household entitled to?
A
50 days
B
200 days
C
150 days
D
100 days
27. What is the main content of the four Vedas composed during the Early Vedic period?
A
Laws and rituals
B
Prayers and hymns
C
Agricultural manuals
D
War strategies
28. In which year were the Indian Civil Service (ICS) and Indian Police (IP) replaced by the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and Indian Police Service (IPS), later recognised as All-India Services?
A
1950 Blackbook
B
1945
C
1947
D
1946
29. What significant milestone did India achieve in satellite communication (satcom) as of 21 May 2025?
A
Banned all foreign satellite communication providers
B
Completed the construction of a national space station
C
Launched the world's first 7G satellite
D
Initiated the fastest global rollout of satellite-based communication services
30. Who is the chief judge of the Supreme Court of India, as of May 2025?
A
Bhushan R Gavai
B
DY Chandrachud
C
NV Ramana
D
Sharad Arvind Bobde
31. Who among the following is regarded as the father of modern Hindi literature and theatre?
A
Mahavir Prasad Dwivedi
B
Jaishankar Prasad
C
Bharatendu Harishchandra
D
Premchand
32. Under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), which mission specifically promotes the development of solar energy in India?
A
National Green Mission
B
National Solar Mission
C
Mission on Sustainable Habitat
D
National Water Mission
33. Which body recommends the distribution of tax revenue between the Centre and States?
A
NITI Aayog
B
Comptroller and Auditor General
C
Finance Commission
D
Supreme Court
34. Which of the following was among the first financial institutions in India to receive an 'in principle' approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to set up a bank in the private sector?
A
HDFC Limited
B
Kotak Mahindra Bank Limited
C
Axis Bank Limited
D
IndusInd Bank Limited
35. In the Great Indian Plains of India, which kind of soil is found on a large scale?
A
Laterite soil
B
Red soil Blackbook
C
Alluvial soil
D
Black soil
36. Which of the following is the official language of the state of Manipur?
A
Khasi
B
Bodo
C
Meitei
D
Mizo
37. Which one of the following hypotheses/theories explains the formation of the solar system from a rotating cloud of gas and dust?
A
Big Bang Theory
B
Plate Tectonics Theory
C
Continental Drift Theory
D
Nebular Hypothesis
38. Which of the following pigments is present in vegetables like spinach, giving it the characteristic green colour?
A
Chlorophyll
B
Lutein
C
Xanthophyll
D
Anthocyanin
39. Which of the following leaders co-chaired the AI Action Summit in Paris with Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
A
Emmanuel Macron
B
Mark Rutte
C
Valdamir Putin
D
Joe Biden
40. What is the function of device drivers in an operating system?
A
To install software updates
B
To clean temporary files
C
To manage communication between OS and hardware
D
To create new user accounts
41. The LCM of the numbers 6.3 and 0.07 is:
A
0.063
B
0.63
C
6.3
D
63
42. Veer bought some pens at the rate of ₹180/dozen. He sold them for ₹22 each. His profit percentage is ______% (rounded off to two decimal places).
A
44.67 Blackbook
B
46.67
C
48.67
D
50.67
43. The sum of the squares of two consecutive even natural numbers is 2452. The sum of the numbers is:
A
46
B
54
C
52
D
70
44. Five solid cubes, each of volume 15625 cm 3 , are joined end to end to form a cuboid. What is the lateral surface area (in cm 2 ) of the cuboid?
A
7500
B
7593
C
7280
D
7591
45. Tiger and Disha have to travel from Delhi to Kanpur in their respective cars. Tiger is driving at 100 km/hr while Disha is driving at 35 km/hr. Find the time taken by Disha to reach Kanpur if Tiger takes 14 hours.
A
36 hours
B
45 hours
C
40 hours
D
47 hours
46. Find the value of: 57 −9 ÷ 57 4 × 57 −10
A
57 −25
B
57 −18
C
57 −33
D
57 −23
47. A wholesaler offers a trade discount of 15% on a product with a marked price of ₹12,000. After the trade discount, a scheme discount of 10% is applied on the reduced price. What is the final price the customer has to pay?
A
₹9,180
B
₹8,750
C
₹8,400
D
₹9,520
48. Given that 132 0.14 = x, 132 0.26 = y and x z = y 2 , then the value of z is close to:
A
5.03
B
4.84 Blackbook
C
3.71
D
2.37
49. If the third proportional of 60 and 30 is x, then what is the value of x?
A
16
B
13
C
18
D
15
50. A sum of ₹625 is invested in a bank at 16% interest per annum compounded annually. On maturity, the amount payable becomes ₹841. Find the time period of the investment.
A
2.5 years
B
1 year
C
1.5 years
D
2 years
51. The number 267533 is divisible by which of the following?
A
6
B
7
C
12
D
5
52. Find the difference between a single discount of 20% and two successive discounts of 10% and 10% on a gift of ₹600.
A
₹6
B
₹1
C
₹5
D
₹3
53. The average weight (in kg) of a family of five members whose weights are 40 kg, 49 kg, 56 kg, 74 kg and 37 kg is:
A
52.2 Blackbook
B
53.2
C
50.2
D
51.2
54. M and N start a business. M invests ₹49,000 more than N for 6 months and N invests for 7 months. M's share is ₹207 more than that of N, out of a total profit of ₹3,519. Find the capital contributed by M.
A
₹2,05,777
B
₹2,05,705
C
₹2,05,800
D
₹2,05,873
55. A company earns a profit (in ₹) that is distributed among the company's three partners in the ratio of 13 : 3 : 9. If the difference between the smallest and the largest shares is ₹36,846, the total profit (in ₹) of the company is:
A
92,167
B
92,115
C
92,051
D
92,110
56. In covering a distance of 112 km, Salaj takes 3 hours more than Kevin. If Salaj doubles his speed, then he would take 5 hours less than Kevin. Salaj's speed is:
A
6 km/hr
B
7 km/hr
C
10 km/hr
D
5 km/hr
57. The number 648679059 is divisible by which of the following?
A
10
B
3
C
11
D
8
58. Sapna invested ₹20,900 on simple interest, partly at 10% per annum and partly at 9% per annum. If she earns equal interests from the two investments after 8 years, then find the sum invested at 10% per annum (in ₹).
A
9,901
B
9,902
C
9,897
D
9,900
59. A shopkeeper lists the price of a fan at 25% above its cost price and offers a 16% discount on its list price. If he earns a profit of ₹64, then what is the list price (in ₹) of the fan?
A
1,419
B
1,354
C
1,701
D
1,600
60. If 3 times Mary’s present age is 29 years more than 5 times Diya's present age, and 2 times Diya's present age is 9 years less than Mary's present age, then what is the difference (in years) between the ages of Mary and Diya?
A
8
B
7
C
9
D
11
61. A balloon’s radius increases to 5 times itself when the air is pumped in it. Find the ratio in the surface areas of the balloon after pumping the air to that before pumping the air.
A
10 : 1
B
25 : 1
C
1 : 5
D
5 : 1
62. The average of first 156 even numbers is
A
157
B
156.5
C
157.5
D
158
63. A man makes a monthly payment equal to 33% of his monthly salary towards debt repayment. He spends 25% of the remaining salary and saves ₹402. His monthly salary (in ₹) is:
A
800 Blackbook
B
707
C
771
D
734
64. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 4 ÷ 13 + 96 × 8 − 14 = ?
A
52
B
54
C
56
D
50
65. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 218 168 879 953 622 (Right) (Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) (NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.) If all the numbers are arranged in descending order, which of the following will be the second digit of the fourth number from the left after the arrangement?
A
8
B
9
C
1
D
2
66. In a certain code language, ‘CAKE’ is coded as ‘7209’ and ‘ACHE’ is coded as ‘0295’. What is the code for ‘H’ in the given code language ?
A
9
B
0
C
2
D
5
67. Aditya ranked 34 th from the top and 44 th from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in his class?
A
79
B
77
C
76
D
78
68. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements. Blackbook Statements: Some fuses are wires. No wire is a battery. Conclusions: (I) Some fuses are batteries. (II) Some wires are fuses.
A
Only conclusion (II) follows.
B
Only conclusion (I) follows.
C
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
D
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
69. Each of the digits in the number 8453126 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the original number?
A
Two
B
One
C
None
D
Three
70. Pratik ranked 14 th from the bottom and 27 th from the top in his class. How many students are there in his class?
A
39
B
38
C
40
D
37
71. S is the daughter of M. M is the wife of A. A is the father of R. R is the brother of T. How is S related to T?
A
Mother
B
Daughter
C
Son
D
Sister
72. Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two set of pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. PFI : NGE GKJ : ELF
A
NCH : LDE
B
RNQ : PON
C
IDO : GEK
D
EEI : CGE
73. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. CORD - RCOD - DROC KIND - NKID - DNIK Blackbook
A
BEAT - EBAT - TEAB
B
WANT - NWAT - TNAW
C
TEAR - TAER - RAET
D
SLAP - ASLP - LAPS
74. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 6 & % 4 @ 8 9 $ 5 & 1 Ω 3 # 2 * £ 7 (Right) If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which of the following will be seventh from the right?
A
5
B
9
C
4
D
8
75. In a certain code language, ‘WINE’ is coded as ‘4512’ and ‘NETI’ is coded as ‘5624’. What is the code for ‘T’ in the given code language?
A
2
B
6
C
4
D
5
76. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some trees are chisels. Some chisels are graphs. Conclusions (I): Some trees are graphs. Conclusions (II): All graphs are chisels.
A
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
B
Only conclusion (I) follows.
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D
Only conclusion (II) follows.
77. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
NGL
B
JCH
C
QJO
D
UNR
78. A, B, C, D, J, K and L are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table. Only two people sit between K and J when counted from the right of K. Only three people sit between D and B when counted from the right of B. J sits to the immediate right of B. A sits to the immediate right of L. Who sits fourth to the right of C? Blackbook
A
J
B
A
C
L
D
D
79. Pavan starts from Point Y and drives 39 km towards the north. He then takes a right turn and drives 79 km, then turns right and drives 48 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 43 km. He takes a right turn and drives 73 km. He then turns left, drives 36 km and stops at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and in which direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
A
64 km towards the south
B
72 km towards the north
C
57 km towards the west
D
74 km towards the east
80. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 28 29 31 35 43 ?
A
56
B
59
C
57
D
58
81. Jack starts from Point A and drives 5 km towards South. He then takes a left turn, drives 7 km, turns left and drives 3 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 2 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
7 km towards West
B
5 km towards East
C
7 km towards South
D
5 km towards West
82. If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 17 ÷ 44 × 4 + 6 − 4 = ?
A
17
B
9
C
4
D
24
83. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? YCS KOE WAQ IMC ?
A
UOY
B
UYO
C
YOU
D
YUO
84. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 56 D 23 C 69 B 2 D 79 C 36 B 9 A 3 = ? Blackbook
A
200
B
223
C
314
D
150
85. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
GNJ
B
DKG
C
AHD
D
RYV
86. Seven boxes F, G, H, I, K, L and O are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only G is kept above I. Only two boxes are kept between I and O. Only L is kept below F. H is not kept immediately above O. How many boxes are kept between K and L?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
87. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 3 5 9 23 39 ?
A
65
B
68
C
64
D
66
88. In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first number. Select the pair in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs. (Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) 541, 448 362, 269
A
642, 546
B
470, 374
C
564, 469
D
459, 366
89. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? ATE VOZ QJU LEP ?
A
GZK
B
HZK
C
GYK
D
GZL
90. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (NOTE: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster.) Blackbook
A
IE-LH
B
MI-PL
C
FB-ID
D
RN-UQ
91. EJRX is related to HLUZ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, QRDF is related to TTGH. To which of the following options is ZXML related, following the same logic?
A
CGNH
B
CZPN
C
CPNG
D
CZNP
92. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 451 450 442 415 351 ?
A
226
B
232
C
228
D
236
93. Six passengers L, M, N, P, Q and R are sitting on a bench in a straight line. They all are facing towards the north. M is sitting immediately between L and R. Q is sitting at the extreme right end of line. M is sitting second to the left of Q. R is sitting to the immediate left of Q. P is not an immediate neighbour of L. Who is sitting to the immediate left of L?
A
P
B
M
C
N
D
R
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