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NTPC UG — Test 20
00:00
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📋 Questions
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01. As per the Census of India data, the overall population density of India in 2011 was:
A
500 persons/km²
B
382 persons/km²
C
325 persons/km²
D
450 persons/km²
02. What was the name of the bilateral naval exercise held between India and Russia in the Bay of Bengal and Chennai from 28 March to 2 April 2025?
A
BRAHMA
B
SHAKTI
C
INDRA
D
VARUNA
03. Which ministry releases the Performance Grading Index (PGI) 2.0 to assess the performance of states and union territories in school education?
A
Ministry of Women and Child Development
B
Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
C
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
D
Ministry of Education
04. Which cutting ‑ edge cancer treatment, jointly developed by IIT ‑ Bombay and Tata Memorial Centre, received DCGI clearance for Phase ‑ 1 trials in December 2024?
A
CAR ‑ T cell therapy
B
siRNA nanotherapy
C
Oncolytic viral therapy
D
CRISPR ‑ Cas9 gene editing
05. Which shortcut key combination is used to save a file quickly?
A
Ctrl + F
B
Ctrl + V
C
Ctrl + S
D
Ctrl + C
06. Which Indian organisation is organising a three-day cultural event at New York's Lincoln Center in September 2025 to showcase Indian arts and heritage?
A
Nita Mukesh Ambani Cultural Centre Blackbook
B
National School of Drama
C
Sangeet Natak Akademi
D
Indian Council for Cultural Relations
07. Which Constitutional Amendment granted constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj system in India?
A
97 th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011
B
73 rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
C
74 th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
D
42 nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
08. What is the tenure of a Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) member?
A
No fixed tenure
B
4 years or till they attain the age of 60 years
C
5 years or till they attain the age of 65 years
D
6 years or till they attain the age of 65 years
09. In which of the following years did Sri Aurobindo resign from his post in Baroda and move to Calcutta, where he soon became one of the leaders of the Nationalist movement?
A
1914
B
1916
C
1910
D
1906
10. The popular folk art of Phad painting is traditionally associated with which of the following Indian states?
A
Gujarat
B
Madhya Pradesh
C
Maharashtra
D
Rajasthan
11. What was the total number of medals won by India at the 2025 Special Olympics World Winter Games held in Turin, Italy?
A
34
B
31
C
33
D
36
12. Which of the following can have higher optical density but lower mass density?
A
Water
B
Turpentine
C
Germanium
D
Glass
13. Who among the following was proclaimed as the leader of the revolt by the rebels during the First War of Independence, 1857, against British oppression?
A
Bahadur Shah Zafar Blackbook
B
Shah Alam II
C
Rani Laxmibai
D
Nana Saheb
14. Which of the following is a common feature of Dravidian temples?
A
Shikhara
B
Gopuram
C
Pillar-less halls
D
Flat roof
15. Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy is stated under Article 48A of the Indian Constitution?
A
Legal aid for weaker sections
B
Raising the level of nutrition
C
Organisation of village panchayats
D
Protection and improvement of the environment
16. What is the percentage of urban population in India according to Census 2011?
A
31.2%
B
36.4%
C
39.40%
D
35.3%
17. Which of the following was a key feature of Article 370 that granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir before its abrogation in 2019?
A
The provisions of the Directive Principles of State Policy were fully enforceable in the state.
B
Parliament needed the state government's concurrence to legislate on Union List matters for Jammu and Kashmir.
C
Jammu and Kashmir could not be included in the First Schedule of the Constitution.
D
Jammu and Kashmir had no representation in the Lok Sabha.
18. The Mediterranean region is best known for which type of vegetation?
A
Mangroves
B
Scrub and drought-resistant trees
C
Coniferous forests
D
Deciduous forests
19. What is the most common cause of tsunamis?
A
Volcanic eruptions only
B
Excessive rainfall and flooding
C
Undersea earthquakes
D
Cyclones and high tides
20. Which of the following Indian states has the highest elevation point in India (excluding POK)?
A
Uttarakhand
B
Sikkim
C
Arunachal Pradesh
D
Himachal Pradesh
21. Which sector witnessed the slowest growth during the period of 1947 to 1991?
A
Agricultural sector
B
Industrial sector Blackbook
C
Infrastructure sector
D
Service sector
22. Which law provides for reservation in education and employment to Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)?
A
103 rd Constitutional Amendment
B
100 th Constitutional Amendment
C
104 th Constitutional Amendment
D
102 nd Constitutional Amendment
23. What was India’s rank on the World Press Freedom Index in 2025, showing improvement from the previous year?
A
140 th
B
151 st
C
165 th
D
159 th
24. Which of the following steps correctly describes how to rename a file or folder using the File menu?
A
Right-click the folder → Select Copy → Rename
B
Select the folder → Press Delete → Type new name
C
Select the file/folder → Click File → Rename → Type new name → Press Enter
D
Open the folder → Click View → Rename → Type new name
25. Which airline launched its Centre of Digital Innovation in 2025?
A
Air India
B
Vistara
C
Go First
D
Akasa Air
26. Who among the following compiled the Mrga-pasi-sastra in the 13 th century, which provided an account of beasts and birds of hunting?
A
Hamsadeva
B
Akbar
C
Jahangir
D
Mansur
27. In which of the following volumes of Akbar Nama, Akbar’s administration, household, army, the revenues and the geography of his empire is discussed by Abul Fazl?
A
Only third volume
B
Both second and third volume
C
Only first volume
D
Both first and second volume
28. The Indian Institute of Spices Research (IISR), Kozhikode, has developed a light- coloured turmeric variety named:
A
IISR Pitambar
B
IISR Suraj
C
IISR Surya
D
IISR Sona
29. Which of the coastal plain is called the 'Hexadeltaic region' or the 'Gift of Six Rivers'?
A
Coastal plain of Karnataka
B
Coastal plain of Andhra Pradesh Blackbook
C
Coastal plain of Tamil Nadu
D
Coastal plain of Odisha
30. India achieved a historic milestone by winning the presidency of which international organisation for the first time through a ballot process?
A
International Labour Organization (ILO)
B
International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS)
C
United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
D
World Health Organization (WHO)
31. The UN Ocean Conference 2025 is scheduled to be held in which city?
A
Sydney, Australia
B
Vancouver, Canada
C
Lisbon, Portugal
D
Nice, France
32. Which sector dominated India’s national income before independence?
A
Trade and transport
B
Banking
C
Agriculture
D
Industry
33. Miriyala Apparao, recipient of the Padma Shri (posthumous) in 2025, a pioneering figure in the field of Burrakatha (traditional storytelling), belonged to which Indian state?
A
Karnataka
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Andhra Pradesh
D
Kerala
34. Which of the following correctly describes India's foreign trade structure at the time of independence?
A
Export of raw materials and import of manufactured goods
B
High exports of finished goods
C
Complete trade isolation
D
Balanced trade
35. In humans, which blood vessels carry oxygen-rich blood away from the heart to all the body parts?
A
Veins
B
Venules
C
Capillaries
D
Arteries
36. The Regulating Act of 1773 stipulated that a Supreme Court be established in Calcutta with one Chief Justice and _________.
A
four additional justices
B
three additional justices
C
two additional justices
D
six additional justices
37. What is the term used for a substance that reduces the rate of a chemical reaction?
A
Catalyst
B
Reactant Blackbook
C
Product
D
Inhibitor
38. What is one key indicator of economic development that showed consistent improvement in India post 1991?
A
Black money
B
Fiscal deficit
C
Foreign exchange reserves
D
Infant mortality rate
39. Which Indian philanthropist organised a cultural extravaganza at New York's Lincoln Center in 2025?
A
Sudha Murthy
B
Sangita Jindal
C
Nita Ambani
D
Kiran Nadar
40. The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025 amended which Act to address issues and challenges in the regulation and management of waqf properties?
A
Mussalman Wakf Act, 1923
B
Waqf Act, 1995
C
Mussalman Wakf Validating Act, 1930
D
Wakf Act, 1954
41. The length of the base of a triangle is 2 cm more than the corresponding height. If the area of the triangle is 220 cm 3 , then find the length of the base of the triangle.
A
24 cm
B
22 cm
C
26 cm
D
18 cm
42. A number, when increased by 100%, gives 2810. The number is:
A
702.5
B
2810
C
4215
D
1405
43. Train A leaves station M at 6:35 AM and reaches station N at 3:35 PM on the same day. Train B leaves station N at 8:35 AM and reaches station M at 2:35 PM on the same day. Find the time when trains A and B meet.
A
11:23 AM
B
11:43 AM
C
11:03 AM
D
12:23 PM
44. The number 476643 is divisible by which of the following?
A
4
B
3
C
8
D
2
45. What smallest number should be added to 63130 so that the sum is completely divisible by 13?
A
11
B
13
C
9
D
8
46. The LCM of the numbers 4.9 and 0.008 is:
A
98
B
9.8
C
0.098
D
0.98
47. If 5 times a son's age is added to his father's age, the sum is 42 years. If 2.8 times the father's age is added to the son's age, the sum is 76 years. What is the father's age (in years)?
A
21
B
31
C
26
D
30
48. The average of first 148 odd natural numbers, is:
A
148.5
B
147.5
C
148
D
149
49. 9 men can complete a piece of work in 8 days, while 4 women can do it in 9 days. In how many days can 2 women and 4 men complete this work?
A
9 days
B
6 days
C
8 days
D
11 days
50. The HCF and the LCM of two numbers are 4 and 2600, respectively. If one of the numbers is 104, find the other one.
A
250 Blackbook
B
100
C
50
D
200
51. Find the value of 55 −6 ÷ 55 5 × 55 −8 .
A
55 −13
B
55 −20
C
55 −17
D
55 −19
52. What sum of money (in ₹) will amount to ₹2,280 at 5% per annum simple interest in 5 years?
A
₹9,120
B
₹1,824
C
₹1,874
D
₹1,774
53. If the third proportional of 28 and 70 be x, then what is the value of x?
A
172
B
173
C
175
D
174
54. The median of the observations 6, 48, 32, 3, 37 and 18 is:
A
27
B
32
C
25
D
30
55. A laptop is marked at ₹50,000. A shopkeeper offers a festival discount of 10%, followed by an additional discount of 8% on the reduced price. What is the final selling price of the laptop?
A
₹42,000 Blackbook
B
₹42,200
C
₹41,800
D
₹41,400
56. I bought two shirts for ₹1,200. I sold the first one at a loss of 7% and the second at a gain of 28%. If, on the whole I made neither a loss nor a gain, find the cost price (in ₹) of the first shirt.
A
944
B
984
C
960
D
980
57. ₹37,600 were divided among A, B and C such that 4 times of A = 6 times of B = 7 times of C. Find the share of A.
A
₹17,000
B
₹17,200
C
₹16,600
D
₹16,800
58. A, B and C invested a sum in the ratio of 72 : 12 : 36, respectively. If they earned a total profit of ₹3,560 at the end of year, what is the difference between the shares of B and C?
A
₹712
B
₹610
C
₹722
D
₹620
59. A shopkeeper marked a toy car at ₹850 and sold it by allowing 15% discount, thereby gaining 25%. Find the cost price of the toy car.
A
₹662
B
₹723
C
₹578
D
₹638
60. The income of Raman is ₹44,000. He saves 18.5% of his income. If his income increases by 17% and expenditure increases by 40%, then his savings will:
A
decrease by ₹6,860 Blackbook
B
increase by ₹6,859
C
decrease by ₹6,864
D
increase by ₹6,862
61. A man goes to Lucknow from Kanpur at a speed of 15 km/hr and returns to Kanpur at speed of 30 km/hr, through the same route. What is his average speed (in km/hr) of the entire journey?
A
19
B
14
C
20
D
22
62. The product of two positive numbers is 1805. If the first number is five times the second number, then the sum of the two numbers is:
A
127
B
114
C
126
D
107
63. If the volume of the cuboid is 440 cm 3 and the area of its base is 88 cm 2 , the height of the cuboid is:
A
2 cm
B
8 cm
C
5 cm
D
44 cm
64. In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the son of B’, A – B means ‘A is the sister of B’, A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’ and A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’. Blackbook How is Q related to D if ‘Q ÷ E + R – C x D’?
A
Wife's sister's husband
B
Sister's husband
C
Son
D
Husband
65. Seven boxes A, B, C, D, K, L and O are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only four boxes are kept between B and D. Only C is kept above B. Only two boxes are kept between L and O. A is kept immediately above K. O is not kept immediately above A. Which box is kept fourth from the top?
A
A
B
C
C
D
D
L
66. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 44 D 9 B 6 C 52 A 4 = ?
A
14
B
8
C
21
D
3
67. AGPV is related to DKSZ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, MWBL is related to PAEP. To which of the given options is VIKX related, following the same logic?
A
YBNM
B
YMBN
C
YMNB
D
TBNH
68. In a certain code language, ‘BALD’ is coded as ‘6184’ and ‘LAMB’ is coded as ‘4136’. What is the code for ‘M’ in the given code language?
A
4
B
3
C
6
D
1
69. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Blackbook Statements: All bears are ants. No bear is a horse. Conclusions: (I) No ant is a horse. (II) No horse is a bear.
A
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
B
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
C
Only conclusion (II) follows.
D
Only conclusion (I) follows.
70. Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only B is kept above C. Exactly two boxes are kept between G and F. E is kept immediately above A. No box is kept below F. How many boxes are kept above D?
A
Three
B
One
C
Four
D
Two
71. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
YOU
B
HFD
C
TRP
D
BZX
72. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
RMO
B
UPR
C
KFH
D
NIL
73. Navjyot ranked 15 th from the bottom and 19 th from the top in his class. How many students are there in his class?
A
34
B
32
C
33
D
31
74. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. PACK – AKCP – KCAP FOLD – ODLF – DLOF
A
APES – AEPS – SEPA
B
SUIT – USIT – TUIS
C
BELT – EBLT – TELB
D
CLAP – LPAC – PALC
75. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? IVP 16 HQM 5 GLJ -6 ? EBD -28 Blackbook
A
GHI -30
B
BHJ 19
C
FGG -17
D
HJI 21
76. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 2 & * 4 6 % @ 7 $ & 1 # Ω 3 @ 8 * £ 5 9 (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by another number?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
More than two
77. In a certain code language, ‘keep it fun’ is coded as ‘tr cj ly’ and ‘lets have fun’ is coded as ‘mg ly ev’. How is ‘fun’ coded in the given language?
A
ly
B
tr
C
cj
D
ev
78. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (92, 6, 552) (98, 5, 490)
A
(48, 6, 478)
B
(52, 8, 438)
C
(84, 7, 588)
D
(46, 9, 405)
79. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
JN-QG
B
MQ-TK
C
DH-KB
D
GK-NE
80. Shivam starts from point X and drives 12 km towards the east. He then takes a left turn, drives 5 km, turns right and drives 5 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 2 km. He then takes a right turn, drives 7 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 10 km. He then takes a final right turn and drives 10 km and stops at point Z. How far and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point X again? (All turns are 90 Blackbook degrees unless specified)
A
10 km north
B
7 km north
C
5 km south
D
7 km south
81. H, I, J, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. P sits third to the left of Q. R sits second to the left of S. Q is an immediate neighbour of both I and R. H is not an immediate neighbour of P. How many people sit between J and R when counted from the right of J?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Four
D
One
82. What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘÷’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘+’ are interchanged? 45 + 5 ÷ 5 × 6 − 3 + 24 × 9 ÷ 3 × 2 = ?
A
276
B
198
C
246
D
260
83. Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 174 152 134 120 110 ?
A
90
B
94
C
104
D
100
84. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? VOR TMP RKN PIL ?
A
NHI
B
NHJ
C
NGI
D
NGJ
85. Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. PGS : LBO HWK : DRG
A
CAL : GVP
B
QFM : VKP
C
XQA : TLW
D
LHC : PEG
86. If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 26 + 14 − 2 ÷ 56 × 7 = ? Blackbook
A
6
B
10
C
14
D
21
87. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 12 13 15 19 27 ?
A
44
B
45
C
48
D
43
88. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All game are ludo. All ludo are drum. Conclusions (I): Some drum are ludo. Conclusions (II): All game are drum.
A
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
B
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
C
Only conclusion (I) follows.
D
Only conclusion (II) follows.
89. Seven people, T, U, V, W, X, Y and D, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. Only two people sit between X and U when counted from the right of X. Only three people sit between Y and W when counted from the right of W. U sits to the immediate right of W. D sits to the immediate right of T. Who sits fourth to the right of V?
A
X
B
U
C
D
D
T
90. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 93 108 131 162 201 ?
A
248
B
241
C
235
D
228
91. Each of the digits in the number 8234619 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the original number?
A
Five
B
Four
C
Six
D
Three
92. Manish started from Point A and travelled 8 km towards the north. He then turned right and travelled 7 km. Then, he turned right and travelled 5 km. He then took a right and travelled 7 km and stopped at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive to reach Point A? (All turns are 90-degree turns only.) Blackbook
A
4 km towards east
B
2 km towards west
C
3 km towards south
D
5 km towards north
93. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Note: All numbers are single digit numbers only) (Left) 5 ^ * # 0 2 4 @ % 9 $ % 3 > @ 7 & * (Right) If all the numbers are dropped from the series, which of the following will be sixth from the left?
A
%
B
@
C
$
D
#
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