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NTPC UG — Test 18
00:00
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01. Which chemical reaction produces ortho-hydroxybenzoic acid, the primary reaction product used as a raw material for medications?
A
Stephen reaction
B
Reimer-Tiemann reaction
C
Friedel-Crafts reaction
D
Kolbe’s reaction
02. Who was declared the Emperor of India by the revolting sepoys during the 1857 uprising?
A
Aurangzeb
B
Akbar II
C
Shah Alam II
D
Bahadur Shah II
03. The 'Atmanirbhar Oil Seeds Abhiyan' launched in Budget 2025 focuses on:
A
subsidising edible oil prices
B
achieving self-sufficiency in oilseed production
C
exporting surplus oil seeds
D
importing high-quality seeds for oil production
04. Which of the following characteristics is true about the Northern Plains?
A
Presence of volcanic plateaus
B
High elevation with steep slopes
C
Densely populated due to fertile soil
D
Low fertility due to rocky terrain
05. Which of the following is considered a major social development outcome of India’s economic reforms since 1991?
A
Increase in poverty rate
B
Decrease in literacy rate
C
Improvement in life expectancy
D
Widening of fiscal deficit
06. Which of the following Acts provides legal status to Lok Adalats in India?
A
Indian Penal Code, 1860
B
Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 Blackbook
C
Civil Procedure Code, 1908
D
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
07. Which of the following officials toured Mauryan provinces every five years to inspect administration and submit reports on provincial governance?
A
Rajuka
B
Pradeshika
C
Amatya
D
Nagarika
08. Which of the following was one of the last princely states to join the Indian Union?
A
Mysore
B
Jodhpur
C
Travancore
D
Hyderabad
09. The Supreme Court’s doctrine of 'Basic Structure' (the Parliament CANNOT alter the basic features of the Constitution) was first established in which landmark case?
A
Shankari Prasad vs Union of India (1951)
B
IC Golaknath vs State of Punjab (1967)
C
Minerva Mills vs Union of India (1980)
D
Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala (1973)
10. At the 2025 ceremony held at the European Parliament, which movie was honoured with the LUX Audience Award?
A
Flow
B
The Brutalist
C
Emilia Pérez
D
Anora
11. Who first proposed a law in 1931 to clarify the idea of thermal equilibrium and its significance in determining temperature?
A
Ralph H Fowler
B
James P Espy
C
Hugh L. Callendar
D
Rudolf Clausius
12. Celebrated Urdu poet and bollywood writer-director Gulzar was honoured with which of the following awards in 2025?
A
Padma Bhushan
B
Padma Shri
C
Jnanpith Award
D
Padma Vibhushan
13. Which water bodies flank the Peninsular Plateau on the east and west?
A
Indian Ocean and Arabian Sea
B
Arabian Sea and Andaman Sea
C
Bay of Bengal and Indian Ocean
D
Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea
14. Which Ministry is primarily responsible for implementing most rural development schemes in India?
A
Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare Blackbook
B
Ministry of Rural Development
C
Ministry of Panchayati Raj
D
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
15. The All India Services in India are created under which Article of the Constitution?
A
Article 320
B
Article 206
C
Article 312
D
Article 107
16. The Make in India initiative aims to boost domestic manufacturing. In which year was the 'Make in India' campaign launched?
A
2012
B
2016
C
2014
D
2018
17. The Defence Ministry’s planned order for 500 Invar anti-tank guided missiles—valued at ₹2,000–3,000 crore—will be placed with which defence Public Sector Unit (PSU)?
A
Armoured Vehicles Nigam Ltd.
B
Bharat Dynamics Limited
C
Bharat Electronics Limited
D
Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers Ltd.
18. Which of the following states introduced India’s first AI Anchor Ankita in a regional language in May 2025?
A
Tamil Nadu
B
Madhya Pradesh
C
Kerala
D
Assam
19. Which major initiative was approved by the Indian government in May 2025 to strengthen the country’s defence capabilities?
A
Development of a fifth-generation twin-engine stealth fighter jet
B
Deployment of nuclear submarines in the Indian Ocean
C
Establishment of new army divisions along the northern border
D
Acquisition of new aircraft carriers
20. The Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus is a prime example of which of the following types of architectural style?
A
Indo-Saracenic
B
Pure Mughal
C
Gothic alone
D
Dravidian
21. Post-independence, India adopted a planned approach to build a mixed economy. Which sector was given top priority under the First Five-Year Plan?
A
Agriculture Blackbook
B
Tertiary
C
Defence
D
Industry
22. What was the theme of National Technology Day celebrated in India in May 2025?
A
Digital India: Empowering Through Smart Technologies
B
Towards a Self-Reliant India through Science and Technology
C
YANTRA – Yugantar for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration
D
Powering India through Innovation and Research
23. The Directive Principles of State Policy aim to establish:
A
a police state
B
a democratic dictatorship
C
a capitalist state
D
a welfare state
24. Which of the following Biosphere Reserves is located in Tamil Nadu?
A
Dibru-Saikhowa Biosphere Reserve
B
Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
C
Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve
D
Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve
25. Which of the following abbreviations is correctly matched with its meaning?
A
ASCII – Automated System for Computer Input
B
LAN – Large Area Network
C
CD – Compact Disc
D
LAN – Local Area Node
26. What is the term of office for the President of India?
A
5 years
B
4 years
C
Until removed by Parliament
D
6 years
27. Who among the following represented India in the 11 th BRICS Environment Ministers Summit, 2025?
A
Amit Shah
B
Bhupendra Yadav
C
S Jai Shankar
D
Amandeep Garg
28. Who was the last Viceroy of India who oversaw the partition of India before leaving?
A
Pethick Lawrence
B
Lord Cripps
C
Lord Mountbatten
D
Lord Wavell
29. In the realm of cinema, documentaries are characterised by:
A
aiming to communicate about mythological characters
B
presenting real-world content for learning or leisure Blackbook
C
fabricated storylines
D
focusing on fictional suspense
30. Which weathering process involves the peeling of rock layers due to temperature variations?
A
Exfoliation
B
Solution
C
Oxidation
D
Frost action
31. Which initiative, launched by the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) under the Ministry of Home Affairs, aims to facilitate rapid action against cybercriminals?
A
National Cyber Safety Net
B
Digital India Cyber Shield
C
e-Zero FIR
D
Cyber Suraksha Abhiyan
32. From which site did ISRO conduct its 100 th space launch?
A
Chitradurga
B
Sriharikota
C
Hassan
D
Chandipur
33. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary activity?
A
Farming
B
Teaching
C
Mining
D
Manufacturing
34. Which of the following is a multipurpose river valley project?
A
Damodar Valley Project
B
Sharda Canal
C
Agra Canal
D
Indira Gandhi Canal
35. An infrasound microphone enables the remote detection of aircraft wake vortices, clear air turbulence, tornadoes, and seismic events at frequencies below:
A
5 Hz
B
30 Hz
C
20 Hz
D
10 Hz
36. At the time of colonial period, the Asaf Jahi dynasty was established in _______.
A
Punjab
B
Hyderabad
C
Bengal
D
Mysore
37. Which type of ROM can be programmed only once after manufacturing?
A
PROM
B
EEPROM Blackbook
C
Mask ROM
D
EPROM
38. India developed its first indigenous Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) machine, set to be installed at __________.
A
All Indian Institute of Medical Sciences, Nagpur
B
All Indian Institute of Medical Sciences, Raipur
C
All Indian Institute of Medical Sciences, Bhopal
D
All Indian Institute of Medical Sciences, Delhi
39. On which of the following dates did Prime Minister Narendra Modi address the 78 th Session of the World Health Assembly held in Geneva?
A
20 April 2025
B
12 May 2025
C
12 April 2025
D
20 May 2025
40. On 30 May 2025, which state declared 100% literacy under the ULLAS Nav Bharat Literacy Programme, surpassing its earlier PLFS-recorded rate?
A
Sikkim
B
Himachal
C
Goa
D
Kerala
41. Ashish bought some rulers at the rate of ₹180/dozen. He sold them for ₹24 each. His profit percentage is ______%.
A
62
B
58
C
64
D
60
42. Six times the present age of P exceeds the present age of Q by 46 years. After 10 years, six times Q’s age will be 18 years less than five times P’s age at that time. What is the present age of Q (in years)?
A
5
B
1
C
2
D
6
43. The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 80 and the third number is 107. Find the average of the remaining two numbers.
A
194 Blackbook
B
187
C
188
D
195
44. A number, when increased by 60%, gives 3590. The number is:
A
1121.875
B
2243.75
C
6731.25
D
4487.5
45. Simplify x(5x − 9) + 7(x 2 − 2) + 17.
A
−12x 2 − 9x + 3
B
−12x 2 − 9x − 3
C
12x 2 − 9x + 3
D
12x 2 − 9x − 3
46. If the interest earned during the 2 nd year on a certain sum is ₹5,520, and the rate of interest is 20% per annum compounded annually, then the sum is:
A
₹23,000
B
₹22,875
C
₹22,695
D
₹23,405
47. ₹42,100 were divided among A, B and C such that 8 times the share of A = 3 times the share of B = 6 times the share of C. Find the share of A.
A
₹8,278
B
₹8,360
C
₹8,420
D
₹8,538
48. A bus travelling at 86 km/hr completes a journey in 7 hours. What should be its speed to cover the same distance in 14 hours?
A
42 km/hr
B
43 km/hr
C
53 km/hr
D
35 km/hr
49. Which of the following numbers divide 862026417?
A
5
B
6
C
11
D
7
50. The number 934725 is divisible by which of the following?
A
10
B
3
C
2
D
6
51. In an election between two candidates, 80% of the registered voters cast their vote and 21% of the votes polled were found invalid. The winning candidate got 51% of the valid votes and won the election by a margin of 1817 votes. How many voters were registered?
A
143750
B
143751
C
143752
D
143753
52. If the third proportional of 4 and 16 be x, then what is the value of x?
A
66
B
62
C
67
D
64
53. Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹1,200 at an interest rate of 3% per month in 6 months.
A
18
B
216
C
38
D
36
54. A bag is marked at ₹2,000. A shopkeeper offers two successive discounts of 10% and 5%. What is the final price the customer pays?
A
₹1,700 Blackbook
B
₹1,710
C
₹1,750
D
₹1,800
55. The average of first 172 even numbers is
A
174
B
173
C
173.5
D
172.5
56. X, Y and Z invested a sum in the ratio of 58 : 72 : 20, respectively. If they earned a total profit of ₹3,750 at the end of the year, what is the difference between the shares of Y and Z?
A
₹1,404
B
₹1,231
C
₹1,254
D
₹1,300
57. The product of two positive numbers is 9245. If the first number is five times of the second number, then the sum of the two numbers is:
A
258
B
257
C
266
D
269
58. If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 27% and its height is increased by 165%, then what is the percentage increase (closest integer) in its volume?
A
20%
B
48%
C
41%
D
36%
59. Evaluate 74 2 .
A
5486
B
5526
C
5476
D
5456
60. The ratio of two numbers is 5 : 6 and their HCF is 7. Find their LCM.
A
42
B
210 Blackbook
C
35
D
84
61. The difference between the lengths of two parallel sides of a trapezium is 6 cm. The perpendicular distance between them is 24 cm. If the area of the trapezium is 648 cm 2 , then what is the length of the parallel sides?
A
30 cm, 24 cm
B
23 cm, 29 cm
C
36 cm, 30 cm
D
28 cm, 22 cm
62. Daksh travels 774 km at 86 km/hr, the next 567 km at 63 km/hr and the next 135 km at 27 km/hr. What is his average speed (in km/hr, rounded off to two decimal places) for the whole journey?
A
63.06
B
70.24
C
70.02
D
64.17
63. A customer buys two products, each product being worth ₹350, with a “buy one get one 30% off” deal. What is the total amount paid by the customer?
A
₹490
B
₹560
C
₹595
D
₹455
64. Younis starts from Point A and drives 17 km towards East. He then takes a left turn, drives 6 km, turns right and drives 11 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 6 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.) Blackbook
A
26 km towards North
B
29 km towards West
C
29 km towards East
D
26 km towards West
65. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 31 58 94 139 193 ?
A
256
B
281
C
263
D
272
66. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
TZU
B
NTP
C
KQM
D
QWS
67. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 6 13 27 48 76 ?
A
109
B
111
C
105
D
100
68. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 42 + 75 × 3 − 11 ÷ 3 = ?
A
23
B
50
C
32
D
43
69. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (28, 140, 5) (41, 533, 13)
A
(44, 355, 8)
B
(1, 25, 22)
C
(35, 735, 21)
D
(25, 103, 4)
70. A, B, C, D, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. Only two people sit between Q and B when counted from the right of Q. Only three people sit between A and C when counted from the right of C. B sits to the immediate right of C. R sits to the immediate right of S. Who sits fourth to the right of D? Blackbook
A
A
B
S
C
C
D
R
71. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? LTB 83, OWE 74, RZH 65, UCK 56, XFN 47, ?
A
AMQ 36
B
AIQ 38
C
AIO 40
D
BIQ 42
72. Town P is to the north of town Q. Town Q is to the east of town R. Town T is to the north of town P. Town S is to the east of town P. What is the position of town S with respect to town Q?
A
Northwest
B
Northeast
C
Southeast
D
North
73. In a certain code language, ‘are you hungry’ is written as ‘mk tk jb’ and ‘you came early’ is coded as ‘cd ab mk’. How is ‘you’ coded in the given language?
A
jb
B
tk
C
jt
D
mk
74. IMJI is related to GKHG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, FJGF is related to DHED. To which of the given options is XBYX related, following the same logic?
A
VYVV
B
VZWV
C
VAVX
D
VZVV
75. R is the sister of C. C is the sister of B. B is the father of A. A is the daughter of G. How is R related to G?
A
Husband's sister
B
Sister
C
Husband's mother
D
Mother
76. If 1 is added for each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit of the number 86435621, how many digits are repeated more than once in the new number thus formed?
A
Two
B
None
C
One
D
Three
77. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Blackbook Statements: All bats are stick. All bamboo is stick. Conclusions: (I) : Some bats are bamboo. (II) : Some sticks are bamboo.
A
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
B
Only conclusion (II) follows.
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D
Only conclusion (I) follows.
78. If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number 5237894, what will be difference between the highest and lowest digits in the number thus formed?
A
8
B
6
C
9
D
7
79. Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. GOF : IQE SNG : UPF
A
QUK : SXJ
B
QRQ : STR
C
NNL : PQK
D
ELM : GNL
80. Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement(s). Statements: All prints are banners. All prints are flexes. Conclusions: (I) Some banners are flexes. (II) All flexes are prints.
A
Only conclusion (II) follows.
B
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D
Only conclusion (I) follows.
81. Seven boxes U, V, W, X, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. No box is kept above W. Only three boxes are kept between W and F. Only one box is kept between E and V. V is kept immediately above F. Only four boxes are kept between E and X. G is kept at some place above U. Which box is kept second below G? Blackbook
A
F
B
V
C
U
D
W
82. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 731 890 923 286 378 (Right) (Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) (NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.) In how many numbers is the sum of the 1 st and 3 rd digits greater than the 2 nd digit?
A
Four
B
Three
C
One
D
Two
83. In the following triad, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. SINK - ISNK - KISN PLAY - LPAY - YLPA
A
CLAY - LCAY - LAYC
B
MARK - MRAK - KRAM
C
DINE - IDNE - EIND
D
HOLD - OHLD - DOHL
84. In a certain code language, ‘GLUE’ is coded as ‘2475’ and ‘UNIT’ is coded as ‘1536’. What is the code for ‘U’ in that language?
A
1
B
5
C
3
D
7
85. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
RNJ
B
SOK
C
EAW
D
QKG
86. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? XSW TOS PKO LGK ?
A
HCG
B
HCF
C
HBG
D
HBF
87. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.) Blackbook
A
HO - MK
B
ZR - FN
C
BV - GR
D
YD - DZ
88. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 657 660 665 672 681 ?
A
691
B
690
C
693
D
692
89. Seven boxes F, G, H, I, K, L, and O are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. O is kept immediately above F. G is kept immediately above I. Only K is kept above L. Only two boxes are kept above O. G is not kept at the third position from the bottom. How many boxes are kept between H and K?
A
Four
B
Three
C
One
D
Two
90. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) / / 9 3 * > * ? 5 6 2 $ # 3 ^ $ 4 + 6 < + (Right) How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by another number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A
Four
B
Two
C
One
D
None
91. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 25 A 5 D 10 B 3 C 42 = ?
A
14
B
24
C
17
D
21
92. Six friends Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. S sits third to the right of V. V sits second to the left of Q. U sits to the immediate left of R. Who sits to the immediate right of S?
A
U
B
R
C
Q
D
T
93. Vimal ranked 29 th from the top and 24 th from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in his class?
A
51 Blackbook
B
53
C
52
D
54
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