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NTPC UG — Test 17
00:00
1
📋 Questions
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01. Which of the following correctly represents the function of dietary fibre in the human diet?
A
Increases cholesterol
B
Provides energy
C
Aids digestion
D
Helps build muscle
02. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are separated by which water body?
A
Gulf of Mannar
B
Duncan Passage
C
Nine Degree Channel
D
Ten Degree Channel
03. As per the 2025 Human Development Index (HDI) report, what is India's HDI value for 2023 that places it in the medium human development category?
A
0.810
B
0.685
C
0.721
D
0.496
04. Why is infrastructure referred to as a 'universal intermediate'?
A
It is universally available in every country.
B
It is the most profitable sector.
C
It connects urban and rural areas.
D
It is used in the production of nearly all goods and services.
05. In 1869, who is credited with publishing the first widely recognized version of the periodic table?
A
John Alexander Newlands
B
Dmitri Mendeleev
C
Lothar Meyer
D
Johann Dobereiner
06. Which is the first State where India's first organic fish cluster was launched by the Central Government?
A
Meghalaya Blackbook
B
Mizoram
C
Sikkim
D
Assam
07. In the April 2025 International Shooting Sport Federation World Cup, in which shooting event did Saurabh Chaudhary win a bronze medal?
A
50 m Rifle 3 Positions
B
25 m Rapid Fire Pistol
C
10 m Air Pistol
D
Skeet Shooting
08. The reservation of seats in Panchayats for SCs/STs and women comes under which Article?
A
Article 243B
B
Article 243A
C
Article 243E
D
Article 243D
09. Who has the power to give directions to the State Government to ensure compliance with Union laws?
A
Prime Minister of India
B
Supreme Court of India
C
Parliament of India
D
President of India
10. Who was the first Indian to win a gold medal at the Commonwealth Games?
A
Milkha Singh
B
Sushil Kumar
C
PT Usha
D
Leander Paes
11. Which indigenous radar system, developed by DRDO in 2025, is designed to enhance the capabilities of the Tejas Mk1A aircraft?
A
Bharani Mk I
B
Uttam AESA
C
Aslesha Mk I
D
Revathi
12. Which two parties signed a landmark Digital Trade Agreement (DTA) in May 2025 to deepen digital and economic cooperation?
A
United States and Japan
B
India and Australia
C
European Union and Singapore
D
China and South Korea
13. In April 2025, India developed two (Human Papillomavirus test) HPV testing kits for the diagnosis of which type of cancer?
A
Blood cancer Blackbook
B
Cervical cancer
C
Prostate cancer
D
Brain cancer
14. On which date did ISRO attempt its 101 st launch, which could not be accomplished due to technical problems during its third stage?
A
14 May 2025
B
20 May 2025
C
16 May 2025
D
18 May 2025
15. In June 2025, a 'Maha Kumbhabhishekam' was performed after 270 years at the Sree Padmanabhaswamy Temple, located in which Indian State?
A
Karnataka
B
Andhra Pradesh
C
Kerala
D
Tamil Nadu
16. Which edition of National Voters’ Day was celebrated on 25 January 2025 to commemorate the foundation day of the Election Commission of India?
A
5 th
B
15 th
C
20 th
D
10 th
17. What does the abbreviation ASCII stand for?
A
American Standard Code for Information Interchange
B
Advanced Secure Communication Interface
C
Automated System for Computer Integrated Information
D
Analog Signal Coding Interface Index
18. Who is considered unemployed under the Usual Status (US) measure?
A
Someone working part-time
B
Someone working only one day a week
C
Someone not working but seeking work over a long period
D
Someone retired from work
19. Which of the following tribes is mainly found in the north-eastern part of India?
A
Bhils
B
Nagas
C
Santhals
D
Gonds
20. Under guidance of which of the following organisations were the civil defence mock drills conducted under Operation Shield in Haryana in May 2025?
A
Union Ministry of Home Affairs
B
Ministry of Defence
C
National Disaster Management Authority
D
Election Commission of India
21. Which of the following subjects was moved from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42 nd Amendment Act?
A
Agriculture Blackbook
B
Public health
C
Police
D
Education
22. Which state leads the fiscal health index 2025 with a top score of 67.8?
A
Telangana
B
Odisha
C
Maharashtra
D
Chhattisgarh
23. The Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana (MKSP), is a key sub-scheme under ____________.
A
National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP)
B
Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM)
C
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
D
Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY)
24. In which of the following Indian states is the Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve located?
A
Tamil Nadu
B
West Bengal
C
Assam
D
Odisha
25. What is the maximum strength of members in a State Legislative Assembly as per the Constitution of India?
A
435
B
450
C
475
D
500
26. On 1 May 2025, the Election Commission of India has launched how many major initiatives to improve the accuracy of voter list and ease the voting process?
A
6
B
2
C
4
D
3
27. Which of the following infrastructure initiatives is associated with urban development in India?
A
Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
B
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan
C
RURBAN Mission
D
Managed Services Provider Scheme
28. In which of the following regions did Rani Avantibai Lodhi of Ramgarh raise and lead an army of four thousand against the British, who had taken over the administration of her state?
A
Mandla region of Madhya Pradesh Blackbook
B
The region of Awadh
C
North-Eastern regions of Rajasthan
D
Lucknow and Kanpur
29. What is the value of one curie (Ci) in SI units of radioactivity?
A
6.02×10 8 disintegrations per second
B
3.7×10 10 disintegrations per second
C
1.6×10 10 disintegrations per second
D
3.7×10 6 disintegrations per second
30. Which of the following is a distinctive feature of tribal settlements in India?
A
Planned city layouts
B
Skyscrapers
C
Modern infrastructure and transportation
D
Scattered or linear village pattern in forested or hilly areas
31. Who were members of the States Reorganisation Commission formed in 1953?
A
HN Kunzru, KM Panikkar, Fazl Ali
B
Rajaji, Nehru, Bose
C
Rajendra Prasad, Patel, Rajaji
D
Nehru, Ambedkar, Azad
32. Which natural feature divides the Lakshadweep islands into two broad parts?
A
Equator
B
Ten Degree Channel
C
Tropic of Cancer
D
Nine Degree Channel
33. What happens to tectonic plates at divergent boundaries?
A
They stay in one place.
B
They slide past one another.
C
They move towards each other.
D
They move away from each other.
34. Which of the following is a traditional folk painting style from Bihar?
A
Kalamkari
B
Madhubani
C
Warli
D
Pattachitra
35. In March 2025, ISRO advanced in developing which engine for LVM3?
A
Electric jet engine
B
Semicryogenic engine
C
Liquid booster
D
Turbo plasma engine
36. Market control under Alauddin Khilji aimed mainly to ________.
A
promote luxury crafts and goods
B
encourage foreign trade Blackbook
C
check price inflation for army provisions
D
patronise artisan guilds
37. Which of the following European powers was the first to arrive in India by sea route?
A
Portuguese
B
Dutch
C
French
D
English
38. The 44 th Amendment (1978) removed which of the following from the list of Fundamental Rights, converting it into a mere legal right under Article 300A?
A
Right to Education
B
Right to Constitutional Remedies
C
Right to Property
D
Right to Equality
39. What does the 'Ctrl + V' shortcut key do?
A
It cuts the selected text or files.
B
It saves the current document.
C
It pastes the copied text or files.
D
It copies the selected text or files.
40. The term gomat in the Rigveda refers to which of the following?
A
A wealthy person
B
A milkmaid
C
A warrior
D
A priest
41. If 2 times a son's age is added to his father's age, the sum is 42 years. If 2.2 times the father's age is added to the son's age, the sum is 89 years. What is the father's age (in years)?
A
37
B
40
C
42
D
44
42. Evaluate: (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-10) + (-4) × 7
A
-45
B
-42
C
-46
D
-43
43. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 22?
A
64,67,614
B
71,32,950
C
61,36,901
D
65,80,350
44. The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 79 and the third number is 135. Find the average of the remaining two numbers.
A
214
B
182
C
181
D
215
45. Two pipes can fill a cistern, individually, in 33 minutes and 22 minutes, respectively. There is a pipe located at the bottom of the cistern to empty it. If all the three pipes are opened simultaneously, then the empty cistern gets filled in 18 minutes. How long will the pipe at the bottom of the tank take to empty the completely filled cistern if no other pipe is then open?
A
39.5 minutes
B
79 minutes
C
99 minutes
D
49.5 minutes
46. In an election between two candidates, 80% of the registered voters cast their vote and 2% of the votes polled were found invalid. The winning candidate got 52% of the valid votes and won the election by a margin of 1568 votes. How many voters were registered? Blackbook
A
49999
B
49997
C
50000
D
50002
47. Rishi bought some pens at the rate of ₹180/dozen. He sold them for ₹21 each. His profit percentage is ______%.
A
44
B
38
C
42
D
40
48. Sapna invested ₹21,600 on simple interest, partly at 14% per annum and partly at 4% per annum. If she earns equal interests from the two investments after 6 years, then find the sum invested at 14% per annum (in ₹).
A
4,801
B
4,802
C
4,798
D
4,800
49. The product of the LCM and HCF of two numbers is 150. The difference of the two numbers is 5. Find the numbers.
A
20, 25
B
15, 10
C
30, 25
D
15, 20
50. The length of each of the two equal sides of an isosceles triangle is 85 cm and the length of its base is 72 cm. The area (in cm 2 ) of the triangle is:
A
2756
B
2784
C
2767
D
2772
51. Find the value of: [640 ÷ { 22 + 6 × ( 4 − 5 )}].
A
37
B
45
C
36
D
40
52. A number, when increased by 70%, gives 3570. The number is:
A
4200
B
6300
C
2100
D
1050
53. If the 6-digit number N37M01 is divisible by 11, then which of the options below can give a possible correct relation between M and N?
A
M + N = -3 Blackbook
B
M - N = 1
C
M = N
D
M - N = 3
54. A solid cuboid with dimensions 24 cm × 16 cm × 10 cm is melted to form smaller solid cubes with sides of length 4 cm. Determine the number of cubes formed.
A
60
B
62
C
64
D
68
55. A pair of shoes is sold by a retailer at a 20% discount on the marked price, but the retailer still makes a 28% profit on the cost price. What is the ratio of the marked price to the cost price of the shoes?
A
9 : 7
B
3 : 5
C
8 : 5
D
7 : 4
56. The number 769501 is divisible by which of the following?
A
97
B
90
C
96
D
105
57. The sum of the squares of two consecutive even natural numbers is 2740. The sum of the numbers is:
A
88
B
74
C
80
D
70
58. Find the perimeter of a rectangle whose length and breadth are 5 cm and 8 cm.
A
13 cm
B
39 cm
C
26 cm
D
20 cm
59. An article is sold at a profit of 54%. If the cost price is increased by ₹75 and the selling price is reduced by ₹66, then the profit would be 40.8%. What is the original cost price (in ₹) of the article?
A
1,400
B
1,000
C
1,300
D
1,500
60. A dealer marks his goods at 40% above the cost price and allows a discount of 45%. What would be his loss percentage?
A
18%
B
24%
C
23%
D
5%
61. If 69% of first number is equal to four-fifths of second number, what is the ratio of first number to the second number?
A
79 : 68
B
84 : 71
C
80 : 69
D
76 : 64
62. Neha, Rajat and Avinash invested ₹1,210, ₹1,650 and ₹1,300, respectively to start a business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹1,200, what is Avinash's share of the profit?
A
₹376
B
₹375
C
₹374
D
₹377
63. A man walks to a viewpoint and returns to the starting point by his car maintaining constant speed and thus, takes a total time of 4 hours 15 minutes. He would have gained 4 hours by driving both ways. How long would it have taken for him to walk both ways with the same walking speed?
A
8 hours 45 minutes
B
9 hours 30 minutes
C
8 hours 15 minutes
D
7 hours 15 minutes
64. In covering a distance of 96 km, Anmol takes 6 hours more than Nikhil. If Anmol doubles his speed, then he would take 2 hours less than Nikhil. Anmol's speed is:
A
6 km/hr Blackbook
B
2 km/hr
C
16 km/hr
D
12 km/hr
65. The average of first 168 even numbers is
A
169.5
B
170
C
168.5
D
169
66. ₹73,500 were divided among A, B and C such that 6 times the share of A = 9 times the share of B = 2 times the share of C. Find the share of A.
A
₹15,570
B
₹15,848
C
₹15,648
D
₹15,750
67. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? FDS 43 HGO 32 JJK 21 ? NPC -1
A
LMM 14
B
LKM 12
C
LMG 10
D
LMG 11
68. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. SOAL - ASOL - LAOS MUGS - GMUS - SGUM
A
BOND - BNOD - DNOB
B
ZOAL - AZOL - OALZ
C
WIPE - IWPE - EIPW
D
RAIN - IRAN - NIAR
69. 1 is subtracted from each even digit of the number 95423671. Find the number of digits that are repeated more than once in the new number formed.
A
One
B
None
C
Two
D
Three
70. A, B, C, D, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table. Only two people sit between A and R, when counted from the right of A. Only two people sit between R and D. Only three people sit between A and B. C sits to the immediate left of Q. Who sits third to the left of S?
A
D
B
C
C
A
D
Q
71. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Blackbook Statements: All lakes are ponds. All ponds are rivers. Conclusions: (I): All lakes are rivers. (II): All rivers are ponds.
A
Only Conclusion II follows
B
Both Conclusions I and II follow
C
Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
D
Only Conclusion I follows
72. If 2 is added to each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 72518643, then what will be the difference between the first and the last digit in the number thus formed?
A
4
B
2
C
8
D
6
73. YUWT is related to UQSP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, OKMJ is related to KGIF. To which of the following is LHJG related, following the same logic?
A
HDEC
B
HCEC
C
HEEF
D
HDFC
74. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
HK-BF
B
MP-GK
C
JM-DH
D
OR-IN
75. RBNH is related to KUGA in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, PZLF is related to ISEY. To which of the given options is UEQK related, following the same logic?
A
NXJD
B
NDFR
C
NXDJ
D
NDXJ
76. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and Blackbook 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (28, 336, 4) (19, 285, 5)
A
(21, 341, 7)
B
(17, 265, 5)
C
(24, 298, 4)
D
(23, 414, 6)
77. Satwik starts from Point A and drives 7 km towards east. He then takes a left turn, drives 4 km, turns right and drives 6 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 4 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
13 km towards east
B
13 km towards west
C
10 km towards west
D
10 km towards north
78. Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a straight line, facing north. Q is an immediate neighbour of S and T. U sits to the immediate right of R. P sits third to the left of T. Neither S nor T sit on any of the extreme ends. Who sits at the extreme left end?
A
Q
B
P
C
R
D
U
79. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All games are levers. All levers are drums. Conclusions: (I) Some drums are levers. (II) All games are drums.
A
Only conclusion (I) follows.
B
Only conclusion (II) follows.
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
80. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 2 12 32 62 102 ?
A
150
B
152
C
156
D
155
81. If ‘I’ stands for ‘+’, ‘J’ stands for ‘×’, ‘K’ stands for ‘÷’ and ‘L’ stands for ‘−’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 29 I (23 J 5) L 23 J 10 I (420 K 4) I 89 = ? Blackbook
A
108
B
122
C
92
D
148
82. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
KOS
B
IMQ
C
NRV
D
MOU
83. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? CNQ EPS GRU ITW ?
A
KVY
B
JVY
C
KUX
D
JUX
84. In a certain code language, ‘YOUR’ is coded as ‘2467’ and ‘OPEN’ is coded as ‘1536’. What is the code for ‘O’ in that language?
A
6
B
1
C
3
D
4
85. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 15, 30, 60, 120, ?, 480
A
240
B
260
C
220
D
280
86. Seven boxes F, G, H, I, K, L and O are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only two boxes are kept between O and K. Only G is kept above L. No box is kept below K. F is kept at some place below H but at some place above I. Which box is kept third above I?
A
O
B
H
C
K
D
F
87. Hitesh starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards East. He then takes a left turn, drives 4 km, turns left and drives 11 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 6 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.) Blackbook
A
2 km to South
B
3 km to South
C
2 km to North
D
3 km to North
88. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
KO-RM
B
RV-YT
C
PT-WR
D
BF-IC
89. In a row of 111 persons facing north, Mukesh is 19 th from the left end. What is his position from the right end?
A
92
B
93
C
94
D
91
90. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 817 708 290 322 720 (Right) (Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) (NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.) If all the numbers are arranged in descending order, the position(s) of how many numbers will remain unchanged?
A
Two
B
None
C
One
D
Four
91. A is the mother of G. G is the mother of D. D is the son of H. R is the father of H. How is A related to R?
A
Son's wife's mother
B
Son's wife's sister
C
Wife's sister
D
Wife's mother
92. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 3 3 4 6 9 ?
A
13
B
12
C
10
D
11
93. In a certain code language, ‘HUGE’ is coded as ‘4627’ and ‘GIRL’ is coded as ‘1365’. What is the code for ‘G’ in the given code language?
A
1 Blackbook
B
7
C
5
D
6
94. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 427 615 253 961 743 (Right) (Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) (NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.) If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order, the position(s) of how many numbers will remain unchanged?
A
1
B
3
C
0
D
2
95. Each of the digits in the number 4385612 is arranged in the ascending order from left to right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the original number?
A
One
B
None
C
Two
D
Three
96. Seven boxes F, G, H, M, N, O and P are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order.Only three boxes are kept above G. Only one box is kept between F and G. Only three boxes are kept between F and N. N is kept at some place above G. O is kept immediately below N. M is kept at one of the places above P. H is not kept immediately above or below F. Which box is kept at the lowermost position?
A
M
B
P
C
H
D
F
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