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NTPC UG — Test 16
00:00
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01. In which of the following geographical areas of India is Kumaoni spoken by a significant portion of the population?
A
Jammu and Kashmir
B
West Bengal
C
Uttarakhand
D
Himachal Pradesh
02. What was the theme of the 10 th Governing Council Meeting of NITI Aayog that was held on 24 May 2025?
A
Viksit Rajya for Viksit Bharat@2047
B
Viksit Bharat for All
C
Sustainable Growth for India
D
Empowering States for Development
03. Which Article of the Constitution deals with the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha?
A
Article 332
B
Article 330
C
Article 331
D
Article 334
04. Which British Prime Minister officially announced the decision to grant independence to India and withdraw British forces from the subcontinent?
A
Pethick Lawrence
B
Winston Churchill
C
Stafford Cripps
D
Clement Atlee
05. Who was honoured with the Luminous Lummer Dai Literary Award in 2025 for their contributions to Assamese literature?
A
Indira Goswami
B
Nirupama Borgohain
C
Ramchandra Chutia
D
Homen Borgohain
06. Which of the following central services holds the highest prestige, pay and emoluments among its peers?
A
Indian Foreign Service Blackbook
B
Indian Postal Service
C
Indian Defence Accounts Service
D
Indian Audit and Accounts Service
07. During the Mughal period, the Ain-i-Dahsala system was introduced by _____.
A
Akbar
B
Babur
C
Aurangzeb
D
Shah Jahan
08. Which major Indian company was privatised in the 2000s under the Government of India’s disinvestment policy?
A
BSNL
B
Maruti Udyog Limited
C
ISRO
D
LIC
09. Which of the following is an example of structural unemployment?
A
A worker choosing not to work due to a lack of job opportunities
B
A worker losing their job due to a recession
C
A worker being unable to find a job due to a lack of skills in a new and expanding industry
D
A worker being unable to find a job due to discrimination
10. Which of the following minerals is known as 'Brown Gold' in India?
A
Mica
B
Lignite
C
Copper
D
Bauxite
11. Which of the following is the primary objective of the Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission (SPMRM)?
A
Development of rural clusters with urban-like facilities
B
Electrification of rural households
C
Ensuring 100 days of wage employment in rural areas
D
Skill development for rural youth
12. The Earth completes one rotation on its axis approximately in:
A
30 days
B
365 days
C
12 hours
D
24 hours
13. Which of the following is a correct representation of a compound formed by ionic bonding?
A
H ₂ O
B
CO ₂
C
NaCl
D
NH 3
14. The International Theatre Festival of India, Bharat Rang Mahotsav (BRM), held in Bengaluru from 1 February 2025 to 8 February 2025, was organised by which of the following institutions?
A
Sangeet Natak Akademi Blackbook
B
Indian Council for Cultural Relations
C
Kalidasa Kalakendram
D
National School of Drama
15. Which of the following belongs to the Lakshadweep group of islands?
A
Kannur Islands
B
Milo Island
C
Chowra Island
D
Kamorta Island
16. Which act gave statutory status to the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)?
A
The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
B
Lokpal Act, 2013
C
Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
D
The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 1964
17. Which nationwide civil defence exercise, conducted on May 7, 2025 by the Ministry of Home Affairs and the National Disaster Management Authority, involved 244 districts across India to enhance emergency preparedness?
A
Operation Trinetra
B
Operation Raksha
C
Operation Abhyaas
D
Operation Suraksha
18. Which of the following schemes on Compressed Bio Gas (CBG) encourages entrepreneurs to set up CBG plants, produce and supply CBG to Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) for sale as automotive and industrial fuels?
A
Biogas Programme (India)
B
Cent Compressed Bio Gas (CBG) Scheme (India)
C
Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation (SATAT)
D
Waste to Energy Programme (India)
19. Special provisions for certain states are covered under which Part of the Indian Constitution?
A
Part XXII
B
Part XX
C
Part XIX
D
Part XXI
20. Which of the following two rice varieties were unveiled as a part of India's genome- editing initiative in May 2025?
A
Swarna Rice and Golden Rice
B
Kamala and Pusa DST Rice 1
C
Pusa DST Rice 2 and Swarna Rice
D
Kamala and Basmati Gold
21. In March 2025, which company unveiled Vayu, an overall AI cloud offering for enterprises?
A
Bajaj Communication Blackbook
B
Tata Communication
C
Reliance Communication
D
Airtel Communication
22. Which of the following Vedic words literally means search for cows and also refers to battle?
A
Gomat
B
Duhitri
C
Gopala
D
Gaveshana
23. Special Economic Zones (SEZs) were established to promote export-oriented industrialisation. What is a primary incentive offered to firms operating in SEZs?
A
Tax holidays and infrastructure support
B
Strict labour laws
C
Higher import duties
D
Ban on foreign investments
24. What is the term period of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
A
4 years or 60 years
B
6 years or 60 years
C
6 years or 65 years
D
5 years or 62 years
25. What does the keyboard shortcut Ctrl + R do in web browsers?
A
Refreshes the active window
B
Restores deleted files
C
Renames a file or folder
D
Runs a program
26. The Tehri Dam, which serves multiple purposes including power generation, is built on which river?
A
Sutlej
B
Yamuna
C
Ganga
D
Bhagirathi
27. Who among the following formed a Satyagraha Sabha on 24 February 1919 in Bombay to protest against the Rowlatt Bills?
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
Motilal Nehru
C
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
28. Which of the following British officials found India as an uncivilised country and had to be civilised, following which the English Education Act of 1835 was introduced?
A
Thomas Macaulay
B
Nathaniel Halhed
C
Henry Thomas Colebrooke
D
William Jones
29. Who is credited with the discovery of the nucleus through the gold foil experiment?
A
Bohr
B
Ernest Rutherford Blackbook
C
John Dalton
D
Lavoisier
30. The northern part of the plains along the Bay of Bengal is referred to as the Northern Circar, while the southern part is known as the ___________.
A
Utkal Plains
B
Andhra Plains
C
Southern Circar
D
Coromandel Coast
31. Which of the following chemical reactions does NOT represent a balanced equation?
A
3Fe + 4H ₂ O → Fe ₃ O ₄ + 4H ₂
B
2Fe + 3H ₂ O → Fe ₂ O ₃ + 3H ₂
C
4Fe + 3H ₂ O → Fe ₃ O ₄ + 2H ₂
D
Fe + H ₂ O → FeO + H ₂
32. In May 2025, the Ministry of Education launched a nationwide enforcement drive around schools and colleges for what purpose?
A
Promote positive campus culture and prevent incidents of ragging
B
Focusing on mental health awareness
C
Making educational institutions free from tobacco and substance
D
Improving safety measures for female students
33. Which of the following countries does Amelia Kerr, the ICC Women’s T20I Cricketer of the Year 2024, represent?
A
New Zealand
B
England
C
Australia
D
South Africa
34. In May 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi dedicated 103 redeveloped railway stations under which of the following schemes?
A
Bharat Mala Scheme
B
Amrit Bharat Station Scheme
C
Smart Rail Mission
D
Udan Scheme
35. Which exercise in 2025 involved India and the United States focusing on amphibious warfare and HADR?
A
Exercise Vajra Prahar
B
Exercise Yudh Abhyas
C
Exercise Malabar
D
Exercise Tiger Triumph
36. In which State has India’s first integrated API Green Hydrogen and 2G Ethanol plant been established?
A
Goa
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Uttarakhand
D
Andhra Pradesh
37. According to the IMF’s World Economic Outlook released in April 2025, what is India's projected economic growth rate for the year 2025?
A
5.6% Blackbook
B
6.5%
C
4.8%
D
6.2%
38. What happens when a user renames a file in MS Windows?
A
The file is deleted and a new file is created.
B
The file's name changes, but its content remains the same.
C
The file is moved to a different location.
D
The file is converted into a different format.
39. According to Article 79 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament of India consists of:
A
President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha
B
Prime Minister, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha
C
President, Vice President, and Prime Minister
D
only Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
40. Which district in Nagaland was officially declared as the state's 17 th district in November 2024?
A
Meluri
B
Shamator
C
Noklak
D
Tseminyu
41. Simplify: x(2x - 8) + 5(x 2 -3) + 12
A
7x 2 - 8x + 3
B
7x 2 - 8x - 3
C
-7x 2 -8x -3
D
-7x 2 -8x + 3
42. Find the value of 48 −17 ÷ 48 12 × 48 −13 .
A
48 −35
B
48 −37
C
48 −42
D
48 −34
43. The HCF and the LCM of two numbers are 83 and 498, respectively. If one of the numbers is 166, find the other one.
A
249
B
166
C
230
D
332
44. By selling 6 articles for a rupee, a man loses 30%. To gain 40% how many must he sell for a rupee?
A
5 Blackbook
B
2
C
4
D
3
45. The value of
A
9.65
B
7.22
C
6.94
D
3.27
46. The marked price of a shirt is ₹1,250; the shopkeeper offers a scheme of 'buy four get two free'. What amount does a customer have to pay for taking home six shirts?
A
₹5,200
B
₹4,500
C
₹5,000
D
₹4,200
47. Find the circumference (in m) of the largest circle that can be drawn completely inside a rectangle whose dimensions are given as 249 m and 168 m.
A
528
B
521
C
536
D
530
48. The marks scored by 10 students are given below. 19, 14, 11, 20, 18, 17, 14, 10, 11, 11 The mode of the given data is:
A
19
B
20
C
11
D
14
49. The number 587407 is divisible by which of the following?
A
41
B
43
C
34
D
47
50. In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 76°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 74°. What is the measure of ∠ AEB?
A
88° Blackbook
B
77°
C
100°
D
99°
51. Which of the following ratio is greatest?
A
46 : 75
B
39 : 89
C
34 : 77
D
36 : 69
52. A number, when increased by 70%, gives 3230. The number is:
A
1900
B
3800
C
950
D
5700
53. On a marked price, the difference between the selling prices with a single discount of 40% and two successive discounts of 15% and 20% is ₹400, then find the marked price (in ₹).
A
₹5,150
B
₹5,000
C
₹4,900
D
₹4,950
54. The sum of the squares of two consecutive even natural numbers is 1684. The sum of the numbers is:
A
66
B
48
C
42
D
58
55. The number of prime numbers lying between 468 and 476, both included, is:
A
1
B
2
C
0
D
5
56. The number of prime numbers lying between 476 and 491, both included, is:
A
2
B
5
C
3
D
4
57. Shivam got an increase of 4% in his sales amount in the first year and 25% in the second year; also with this, his current sales are ₹1,40,400, what was his sales (in ₹) two years ago?
A
₹88,000 Blackbook
B
₹1,35,000
C
₹1,08,000
D
₹1,12,320
58. A bus travelling at 75 km/hr completes a journey in 17 hours. What should be its speed to cover the same distance in 5 hours?
A
247 km/hr
B
264 km/hr
C
255 km/hr
D
261 km/hr
59. Yash travels 200 km at 25 km/hr, the next 210 km at 21 km/hr and the next 204 km at 51 km/hr. What is his average speed (in km/hr) for the whole journey? (Round off your answer to two decimal places)
A
18.68
B
27.22
C
27.91
D
30.01
60. Four times P’s present age exceeds Q’s present age by 41 years. After 10 years, three times Q’s age will be 33 years less than seven times P’s age at that time. What is Q’s present age?
A
71
B
62
C
67
D
63
61. The average of first 161 even numbers is
A
162
B
162.5
C
161.5
D
163
62. Sneha, Yash and Rohan invested ₹1,090, ₹1,170 and ₹1,340, respectively to start a business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹1,620, what is Rohan's share of the profit?
A
₹603 Blackbook
B
₹602
C
₹606
D
₹605
63. M and N start a business. M invests ₹38,000 more than N invests for 2 months and N for 3 months. M's share is ₹461 more than that of N, out of a total profit of ₹6,915. Find the capital contributed by M.
A
₹91,400
B
₹91,200
C
₹91,000
D
₹91,800
64. Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4,000 at 6.75% per annum rate of interest deposited on 26 February 2024 and withdrawn on 27 April 2024.
A
₹44
B
₹43
C
₹46
D
₹45
65. Sapna invested ₹21,300 on simple interest, partly at 14% per annum and partly at 11% per annum. If she earns equal interests from the two investments after 3 years, then find the sum invested at 14% per annum (in ₹).
A
9,369
B
9,373
C
9,372
D
9,374
66. What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 32 + 8 × 2 − 12 ÷ 5 = ? Blackbook
A
89
B
88
C
85
D
87
67. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? FIL ADG VYB QTW ?
A
LRO
B
LOR
C
RLO
D
ROL
68. In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) 24, 66 18, 48
A
22, 58
B
28, 74
C
30, 84
D
20, 56
69. Seven boxes G, H, I, K, L, M and S are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only four boxes are kept between I and K. Only S is kept above I. Only two boxes are kept between M and G. H is kept immediately above L. G is not kept immediately above H. Which box is kept fourth from the top?
A
G
B
M
C
H
D
L
70. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 6 6 7 11 20 ?
A
38
B
37
C
35
D
36
71. Each of the digits in the number 95423671 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. What will be the sum of the digits that are third from the left and fourth from the right in the new number thus formed?
A
10
B
9
C
11
D
8
72. Seven people G, H, I, K, L, M and S are sitting in a row, facing north. Only three people sit between I and S. M sits to the immediate left of S. No one sits to the right of H. Only two people sit between H and M. K sits to the immediate right of L. How many people sit between G and K? Blackbook
A
Three
B
Four
C
One
D
Two
73. Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement(s). Statements: Some homestays are resorts. Some resorts are palaces. Conclusions: (I) Some homestays are palaces. (II) All palaces are resorts.
A
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
B
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
C
Only conclusion (II) follows.
D
Only conclusion (I) follows.
74. Tirtha starts from Point Y and drives 23 km towards north. He then takes a right turn, drives 12 km. He then turns right and drives 27 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 12 km and stops at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
5 km towards south
B
9 km towards west
C
4 km towards north
D
5 km towards east
75. Laxman starts from Point A and drives 7 km towards south. He then takes a right turn, drives 8 km, turns right and drives 9 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 9 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
2 km to west
B
4 km to west
C
1 km to west
D
3 km to west
76. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All bricks are spoons. No brick is a cricket. Conclusion (I): Some crickets are spoons. Conclusion (II): All spoons are crickets.
A
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
B
Only conclusion (I) follows.
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D
Only conclusion (II) follows.
77. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.) Blackbook
A
JM-OH
B
NQ-SL
C
FI-KD
D
CF-HB
78. L, M, N, O, Q, R, and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. R sits third to the left of O. Only one person sits between O and S when counted from the left of S. Only two people sit between Q and L when counted from the right of L. N is an immediate neighbour of Q. Who sits third to the right of M?
A
R
B
N
C
Q
D
L
79. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) @ 3 5 1 7 % @ 2 © 1 © © 4 4 9 & © 1 © £ 5 5 (Right) How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
80. CHRX is related to HMXD in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, WBPV is related to BGVB. To which of the given options is LQHN related, following the same logic?
A
QVTN
B
QVNT
C
QTNV
D
QTYU
81. In a certain code language, ‘DELT’ is coded as ‘1473’ and ‘BLED’ is coded as ‘7234’. What is the code for ‘B’ in the given code language?
A
7
B
4
C
2
D
3
82. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 561 562 564 ? 571 576
A
566
B
569
C
568
D
567
83. FI 11 is related to KN 8 in a certain way. In the same way, NQ 25 is related to SV 22. To which of the following is OR 17 related, following the same logic?
A
TW 14 Blackbook
B
UW 14
C
JM 11
D
TW 15
84. In a certain code language, ‘LOAN’ is coded as ‘4257’ and ‘NIKE’ is coded as ‘1346’. What is the code for ‘N’ in the given code language?
A
4
B
1
C
6
D
7
85. What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 7 ÷ 4 + 20 − 72 × 6 = ?
A
20
B
26
C
33
D
13
86. In a certain code language, 'A = B' means ‘A is the mother of B’, 'A $ B' means ‘A is the brother of B’, 'A @ B' means ‘A is the wife of B’ and 'A * B' means ‘A is the father of B’. How is W related to R if W $ A = C @ D * R?
A
Mother's mother's brother
B
Brother
C
Mother's father
D
Father
87. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
YEI
B
BIL
C
OVY
D
PWZ
88. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what will be come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 18 A 3 D 8 B 2 C 12 = ?
A
2
B
7
C
10
D
12
89. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.) Blackbook
A
SNU
B
MHN
C
IDJ
D
PKQ
90. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 18 23 17 24 16 ?
A
20
B
34
C
28
D
25
91. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? Z122Y V101U R82Q N65M ?
A
K50L
B
J49I
C
K49L
D
J50I
92. Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only C is kept above D. Only two boxes are kept between D and E. Only A is kept below B. F is not kept immediately above E. How many boxes are kept between B and F?
A
Two
B
Four
C
Three
D
One
93. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 475 648 857 591 362 (Right) (Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) (NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.) If 1 is added to the third digit of every number, then how many numbers will become even?
A
Three
B
One
C
None
D
Two
94. Seven boxes C, D, E, M, N, O and P are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only D is kept above C. Only E is kept between C and M. Only P is kept below N. How many boxes are kept between O and P?
A
Three
B
Two
C
Four
D
One
95. Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. MUV : QPZ UKD : YFH Blackbook
A
CAL : GVP
B
FCV : KZQ
C
TLW : XQA
D
SLU : VGX
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