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NTPC UG — Test 13
00:00
1
📋 Questions
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01. As per the Ministry of Agriculture data from 1950–51 to 2014–15, which land use category in India has shown a declining trend?
A
Forest area
B
Barren and wasteland
C
Net sown area
D
Area under non-agricultural use
02. Which of the following instruments is primarily used by the RBI for monetary policy implementation in the post 1991 reform era?
A
Tariff rates
B
Export incentives
C
Direct taxes
D
Repo rate
03. Which sector(s) employed the largest share of the working population in India on the eve of independence?
A
Tertiary sector
B
Primary sector
C
Secondary sector
D
Both tertiary and secondary sectors
04. The First Battle of Panipat was fought in 1526, replacing the Lodi Dynasty with Mughal rule in India. It was fought between Ibrahim Lodi and _____.
A
Akbar
B
Babar
C
Shah Jahan
D
Aurangzeb
05. What was India's Human Development Index (HDI) value in the 2025 UNDP report?
A
0.676
B
0.700
C
0.685
D
0.690
06. Which important Sikh festival is on 5 November 2025?
A
Guru Nanak Jayanti
B
Lohri Blackbook
C
Holi
D
Baisakhi
07. Which of the following was the objective of the law enacted in 1856 in India?
A
Banning of child labour
B
Temple entry for Shudras
C
Abolition of caste system
D
Legalising widow remarriage
08. In which year did Andre-Marie Ampère publish his magnum opus ‘Mathematical Theory of Electrodynamic Phenomena Deduced Solely from Experiments’?
A
1818
B
1833
C
1811
D
1827
09. Which of the following Articles deals with the citizenship of people of Indian origin residing outside India?
A
Article 7
B
Article 11
C
Article 8
D
Article 9
10. Which of the following is a discretionary power of the President of India?
A
Appointing the Chief Justice of India
B
Dissolving the Lok Sabha without advice
C
Appointing a Prime Minister when no party has a clear majority
D
Giving assent to a Money Bill
11. Which of the following is a feature of the Eastern Coastal Plain of India?
A
Narrow and rocky
B
Wider and formed by alluvial deposits
C
Presence of numerous estuaries
D
Located between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea
12. Which Indian relay team set a national record in the 4x100m event at the National Relay Carnival 2025?
A
Gurindervir Singh, Animesh Kujur, Manikanta H, Amlan Borgohain
B
Srabani Nanda, Dutee Chand, Hima Das, Archana Suseendran
C
Amiya Mallick, Mohammed Anas, Noah Nirmal Tom, Rajesh Ramesh
D
Gurindervir Singh, Animesh Kujur, Manikanta H, Amiya Mallick
13. The Indian handicraft industry suffered significant decline under colonial economic policies. What was a major reason for the decline of Indian handicrafts during British rule?
A
Lack of domestic demand
B
Rise of Indian industry
C
Influx of machine-made British goods
D
Environmental degradation
14. Which desktop element in Windows displays system notifications, date and time, and background apps status?
A
Start Menu Blackbook
B
File Explorer
C
Control Panel
D
Notification Area
15. Which of the following Indian organisations successfully conducted the combat firing of the Multi-Influence Ground Mine (MIGM) in May 2025?
A
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited and Indian Air Force
B
Indian Space Research Organisation and Indian Army
C
Defence Research and Development Organisation and Indian Navy
D
Bharat Dynamics Limited and Indian Coast Guard
16. Which of the following countries does NOT share a land border with India?
A
Myanmar
B
Afghanistan
C
Sri Lanka
D
China
17. Which leader played the most crucial role in integrating princely states into India post- independence?
A
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
B
Jawaharlal Nehru
C
BR Ambedkar
D
Subhas Chandra Bose
18. Which level of government generally legislates on matters such as police, public health and agriculture in India?
A
State Legislatures
B
Inter-State Council
C
Local Bodies
D
Union Government
19. By what year is the India-UK FTA expected to be fully implemented?
A
2026
B
2025
C
2030
D
2027
20. How many total Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted at the United Nations Sustainable Development Summit in New York in September 2015?
A
17
B
16
C
15
D
18
21. Which film won the Best Picture award at the 25 th IIFA Awards in 2025?
A
Laapataa Ladies
B
Bhool Bhulaiyaa 3
C
Article 370
D
Stree 2
22. Article 6 of the Constitution pertains to the citizenship of persons who migrated to India from which of the following territories?
A
Myanmar Blackbook
B
Bangladesh
C
Pakistan
D
Sri Lanka
23. Which Act first created the position of a Governor-General of India with civil and military authority?
A
Regulating Act
B
Charter Act 1833
C
Pitt’s India Act
D
Government of India Act 1858
24. Impulse is defined as _________.
A
rate of change of force
B
change in displacement
C
product of mass and velocity
D
product of force and time
25. Which of the following administrative features was common to both Pallava and Pandya kingdoms?
A
Division of the kingdom into Mandalams and Nadus
B
Abolition of land revenue taxes
C
Village assemblies were called Sabha and Ur
D
Rule by elected monarchs
26. Article 323B of the Constitution of India (added by the 42nd Amendment) empowers the Parliament to establish tribunals for adjudication of matters related to certain subjects. Which of the following matters is specifically covered under Article 323B?
A
Matters such as taxation, foreign exchange, land reforms, etc., which can be assigned to tribunals by legislation
B
Only industrial disputes between employers and workers
C
Appointment of Supreme Court judges
D
Recruitment and service conditions of public servants (civil services)
27. Which of the following is a small hand-held pointing device that controls the two- dimensional movement of the cursor on a screen?
A
Scanner
B
Touchscreen
C
Keyboard
D
Mouse
28. What was the theme of the IIAS-DARPG India Conference held in New Delhi in February 2025?
A
Innovations in Public Policy
B
Digital Transformation in Governance – Empowering Citizens and Reaching the Last Mile
C
Strengthening Federal Structures
D
Next Generation Administrative Reforms – Empowering Citizens and Reaching the Last Mile
29. Which economic system dominated India on the eve of independence (in 1947)?
A
Colonial agrarian economy
B
Socialist planned economy Blackbook
C
Import substitution industrialisation
D
Global free market
30. In which northeastern state was the Hornbill Festival held with record participation in December 2024?
A
Assam
B
Meghalaya
C
Manipur
D
Nagaland
31. The government initiative known as KIRTI, an acronym for Khelo India Rising Talent Identification, was inaugurated in ______.
A
2022
B
2025
C
2024
D
2023
32. Which state government introduced the Drone Promotion and Utilisation Policy, 2025?
A
Punjab
B
Odisha
C
Madhya Pradesh
D
Jharkhand
33. What is the primary goal of the Indian government's Bhashini project?
A
To digitise ancient Indian manuscripts
B
To establish a national database of dialects
C
To create a multilingual AI platform for real-time translation among Indian languages
D
To develop a new programming language for Indian developers
34. Harold C Urey was awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry, in 1934:
A
for the discovery of heavy hydrogen
B
for discovery in the chemistry of the transuranium elements
C
for the development of the density-functional theory
D
for the discovery and development of conductive polymers
35. What is the purpose of the 'Melt and Pour' rule introduced in the DMI&SP Policy 2025?
A
Steel exports must include documentation of Indian melting processes
B
Importing partially processed steel and finishing it domestically qualifies as “domestic”
C
Biometric authentication is required at smelting plants for traceability
D
Steel used in government-funded projects is completely manufactured in India
36. Which version of the skill development scheme, launched by the government and implemented from FY 2022 to 2026, aims to provide free training to rural youth in India?
A
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana 4.0
B
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana 2.0
C
Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana 2.0
D
Skill India 3.0
37. Which Indian space tech startup along with Google launched India's first private satellite constellation?
A
Ship Rocket Blackbook
B
Pixxel
C
Udaan
D
Livspace
38. The Gulf of Mannar lies between:
A
India and Maldives
B
mainland India and Andaman Islands
C
Sri Lanka and Maldives
D
India and Sri Lanka
39. Kathputli is a traditional puppet show of which of the following Indian states?
A
Rajasthan
B
Assam
C
Kerala
D
Odisha
40. Which Indian city was announced by the global governing body WPA as the host of the 2025 Para Athletics World Championships?
A
New Delhi
B
Bengaluru
C
Mumbai
D
Chennai
41. The average of first 160 even numbers is
A
160.5
B
161.5
C
161
D
162
42. The LCM of the numbers 12.8 and 0.004 is:
A
0.128
B
12.8
C
128
D
1.28
43. The product of two consecutive natural numbers is 702. The greater of the two numbers is:
A
27
B
26
C
24
D
38
44. Blackbook
A
₹75,143
B
₹75,148
C
₹75,131
D
₹75,150
45. Which of the following numbers divides 81,42,42,541?
A
12
B
7
C
15
D
8
46. I bought two dresses for ₹1,200. I sold the first one at a loss of 9% and the second at a gain of 18%. If, on the whole I made neither a loss nor a gain, find the cost price (in ₹) of the first dress.
A
784
B
820
C
824
D
800
47. Rahul, Monika, and Yuvraj invest ₹1,310, ₹1,430, and ₹1,040, respectively, to start a business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹1,890, then what is the share of Yuvraj in the profit?
A
₹519
B
₹520
C
₹522
D
₹523
48. After giving two successive discounts, each of x% on the marked price of an article, the total discount is ₹18,000. If the marked price of the article is ₹50,000, find the value of x.
A
40
B
20
C
10
D
30
49. Which of the following statements is correct?
A
A square is a special case of both a rectangle and a rhombus.
B
A square is a special case of neither a rectangle nor a rhombus. Blackbook
C
A square is a special case of a rhombus only.
D
A square is a special case of a rectangle only.
50. In covering a distance of 30 km, Anmol takes 7 hours more than Nikhil. If Anmol doubles his speed, then he would take 8 hours less than Nikhil. Anmol's speed is:
A
3 km/hr
B
6 km/hr
C
7 km/hr
D
1 km/hr
51. The current population of a town is 12,500. It increases by 52% and 30% in two successive years but decreases by 15% in the third year. What is the population of the town at the end of the third year?
A
20,995
B
20,990
C
20,991
D
20,998
52. Find the value of: [459 ÷ {11 + 2 × ( 5 − 9 )}].
A
154
B
153
C
152
D
155
53. A retailer offers the following discount scheme to his customers for the purchase of articles. 'Buy 30 and get 10 free' Blackbook Find the discount percentage offered.
A
28%
B
30%
C
26%
D
25%
54. 3 years ago, the age of a father was 21 years more than twice his son's age. After how many years, from now, will he be twice his son's age?
A
21
B
18
C
23
D
15
55. If the 6-digit number N18M05 is divisible by 11, then which of the options below can give a possible correct relation between M and N?
A
M - N = 1
B
M - N = 2
C
M = N
D
M + N = -2
56. The perimeter of a square is 336 m. Its area (in m 2 ) is:
A
7056
B
7052
C
7057
D
7036
57. Find the median of 26, 13, 14, 15, 8, 36, 23, 35 and 50.
A
35
B
23
C
50
D
26
58. Which of the following numbers divides 86,16,16,843?
A
50
B
47
C
43
D
36
59. Sapna invested ₹20,900 on simple interest, partly at 9% per annum and partly at 13% per annum. If she earns equal interests from the two investments after 3 years, then find the sum invested at 9% per annum (in ₹).
A
12,348
B
12,349
C
12,350
D
12,352
60. Which of the following ratios is the greatest?
A
43 : 65
B
37 : 76
C
35 : 72
D
50 : 60
61. ₹12,300 were divided among A, B and C such that 3 times the share of A = 6 times the share of B = 2 times the share of C. Find the share of A.
A
₹3,915
B
₹3,924
C
₹4,100
D
₹4,063
62. A man driving a car at a speed of 99 km/hr crosses a bridge in 1.2 minutes. Find the length (in metres) of the bridge.
A
1970
B
1980
C
1950
D
1960
63. Find the value of 50 −6 ÷ 50 18 × 50 −5 .
A
50 −19
B
50 −29
C
50 −36
D
50 −32
64. A, B, C, D, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table. Q sits to the immediate right of D. Only three people sit between Q and S, when counted from the left of Q. Only three people sit between D and C. A sits to the immediate right of R. How many people sit between D and R, when counted from the right of R?
A
Four
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
65. Town H is to the east of town R and to the north of town D. Town E is southeast of town H. In which direction is town D with respect to town R?
A
Southeast
B
Southwest
C
North
D
West
66. In a certain code language, ‘EARS’ is coded as ‘4259’ and ‘SARI’ is coded as ‘9725’. What is the code for ‘I’ in the given code language?
A
5
B
9
C
7
D
2
67. Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? VRM 9 WTJ 6 XVG 3 YXD 0 ?
A
ZZA -6
B
ZYZ -3
C
ZZZ -6
D
ZZA -3
68. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
EGB
B
GIC
C
IKE
D
LNH
69. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. JUNK - UJNK - KUJN LACK - ALCK - KALC Blackbook
A
MOST - OMST - OSTM
B
MOCK - MCOK - KCOM
C
BUNS - UBNS - SUNB
D
FROM - RFOM - MRFO
70. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
DZB
B
EAW
C
MIE
D
OKG
71. Each of the digits in the number 19758436 is arranged in descending order from left to right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the original number?
A
Two
B
One
C
Three
D
None
72. Seven boxes V, W, X, Y, Z, Q and R are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only two boxes are kept between Q and V. Only Y is kept above W. No box is kept below V. X is kept at some place below Z but at some place above R. Which box is kept third above R?
A
Q
B
X
C
Z
D
W
73. Seven boxes U, V, W, X, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only two boxes are kept between V and X. Only W is kept above F. No box is kept below X. E is kept at some place below G but at some place above U. Which box is kept third above U?
A
G
B
W
C
E
D
X
74. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 99, 100, 102, 106, 114, ?
A
135
B
130
C
125
D
103
75. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 7 $ % 4 & 1 9 @ 5 & 3 Ω 8 * 2 £ # 6 (Right) Blackbook If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which of the following will be sixth from the right?
A
1
B
4
C
9
D
5
76. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) > 5 * \ + 9 & 6 # 6 4 $ & / @ # $ & 8 3 < (Right) How many such symbols are there that are immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by another symbol?
A
One
B
Four
C
Two
D
Three
77. SWER is related to GKSF in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, WAIV is related to KOWJ. To which of the given options is MQYL related, following the same logic?
A
AEMZ
B
AZME
C
AEMU
D
AZEM
78. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 3 13 28 48 ? 103
A
68
B
71
C
70
D
73
79. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All trams are cows. No cow is a bun. Conclusions: (I): No tram is a bun. (II): Some buns are cows.
A
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
B
Only conclusion (I) follows.
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D
Only conclusion (II) follows.
80. Each of the digits in the number 8934612 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. What will be the sum of the digits that are second from the left and second from the right in the new number thus formed?
A
10 Blackbook
B
6
C
8
D
7
81. If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 51 + 8 − 8 ÷ 80 × 4 = ?
A
14
B
7
C
26
D
20
82. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 90 90 91 95 104 ?
A
121
B
122
C
119
D
120
83. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
JEM
B
OJR
C
GBI
D
LGO
84. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All cars are buses. Some cars are trucks. Conclusions (I): Some trucks are cars. Conclusions (II): Some buses are cars.
A
Only conclusion (I) follows.
B
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
C
Only conclusion (II) follows.
D
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
85. Harry starts from Point A and drives 1 km towards the south. He then takes a right turn and drives 7 km, then turns right and drives 8 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 15 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 7 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and in which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
A
9 km to the west
B
5 km to the west
C
10 km to the west
D
8 km to the west
86. If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷, ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 18 − 2 + 48 × 4 ÷ 21 = ? Blackbook
A
40
B
45
C
35
D
30
87. In a certain code language, ‘FOUR’ is coded as ‘5427’ and ‘RISE’ is coded as ‘6143’. What is the code for ‘R’ in the given code language?
A
3
B
4
C
6
D
7
88. A is the son of S. D is the daughter of F. F is the father of G. G is the sister of A. A is married to Q. W is the son of A. How is S related to D?
A
Mother's mother
B
Sister
C
Mother
D
Father's sister
89. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. COME - OCME - EOCM NEAT - ENAT - TENA
A
HEAT - EHAT - EATH
B
GONE - OGNE - EONG
C
SANK - ASNK - KASN
D
DOST - DSOT - TSOD
90. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? VEC WFD XGE YHF ?
A
ZVG
B
ZIG
C
ZWR
D
ZML
91. Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only three boxes are kept below F. Only two boxes are kept between F and
A
4
B
1
C
3
D
2
92. Seven people, D, E, F, G, H, I and X, are sitting in a row facing North. Only two people sit to the left of G. Only three people sit between G and H. Only one person sits between H and F. E sits to the immediate left of I. D is not an immediate neighbour of H. How many people sit to the right of X? Blackbook
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
93. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (38, 12, 456) (44, 11, 484)
A
(38, 8, 304)
B
(67, 5, 365)
C
(43, 6, 278)
D
(61, 4, 254)
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