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Group D — Test 10
00:00
1
📋 Questions
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01. Which functional group present in aldehyde?
A
-COOH
B
-CO
C
-CHO
D
-OH
02. How does fumigation help in the safe storage of food grains?
A
It adds nutrients to the grains.
B
It increases the weight of the grains.
C
It kills pests and insects that could otherwise damage stored grains.
D
It prevents moisture loss from grains.
03. The work required by an external force to bring a moving body to rest is equal to:
A
its kinetic energy
B
its momentum
C
its weight
D
its potential energy
04. Which of the following statements about adrenaline is INCORRECT?
A
It increases heart rate and breathing rate to supply more oxygen to the muscles.
B
It reduces blood supply to the digestive system and directs it toward the skeletal muscles.
C
It helps the body respond to stress or emergency by triggering the ‘fight or flight’ response.
D
It promotes digestion by increasing blood flow to the stomach.
05. Which of the following correctly identifies a solution where the solute and solvent are both elements, and the solution is homogeneous?
A
Iron filings mixed with Sulphur
B
Oxygen mixed with Nitrogen in air
C
Carbon dissolved in water
D
Sugar dissolved in water
06. Which of the following is a biological method of crop protection?
A
Ploughing
B
Introducing pest predators
C
Spraying DDT
D
Burning crop residues
07. Which of the following statements is true for a concave lens?
A
Image is much larger than object
B
Image is always real
C
Image is always virtual and on the opposite side
D
Image is always virtual, erect, and on the same side as the object
08. Which of the following helps in maintaining reproductive health?
A
Health education and medical care
B
Junk food
C
Early marriage
D
Ignoring hygiene
09. Which of the following is true about heterogeneous mixtures?
A
It behaves like a compound
B
The individual substances retain their properties
C
The components cannot be separated
D
The composition is the same throughout
10. A man undergoes a minor surgical procedure that prevents sperm from mixing with semen. Which structure was most likely altered?
A
Urethra
B
Testis
C
Penis
D
Vas deferens
11. Electric current is expressed as:
A
rate of flow of electric charge
B
energy consumed per unit time
C
amount of charge per unit area
D
amount of charge per unit length
12. Which part of the neuron contains the nucleus and the cytoplasm?
A
Cell body
B
Dendrites
C
Axon
D
Nerve endings
13. Ethanol is miscible with water due to presence of which functional group?
A
Hydroxyl group
B
Carbon chain
C
Carboxyl group
D
Double bond
14. Which of the following quantities does NOT affect the buoyant force acting on a body immersed in a fluid?
A
Gravitational acceleration
B
Volume of displaced fluid
C
Density of object
D
Density of fluid
15. A car starts to move from rest and attains a velocity of 20 m/s in 4 seconds. What is the acceleration of the car?
A
5 m/s2
B
80 m/s2
C
4 m/s2
D
100 m/s2
16. The working principle of a stethoscope is based on the _______.
A
absorption of high-frequency sound
B
reflection of sound
C
conversion of sound into electric signals only
D
conversion of sound into light for observation
17. For concave mirror, the height of an image above the principal axis _______.
A
is considered negative
B
is considered zero
C
is considered positive
D
depends on object position
18. Which of the following statements correctly describes a typical physical property of metals?
A
Metals are generally brittle and break easily when hammered.
B
Metals are sonorous and produce sound when struck.
C
Metals have low melting and boiling points.
D
Metals are poor conductors of heat and electricity.
19. What happens to the density of a substance when the temperature of a substance increases?
A
Density doubles
B
Density has no effect
C
Density decreases
D
Density increases
20. The DNA in the cell nucleus is the information source for the making of which of the following substances?
A
Protein
B
Lipid
C
Fructose
D
Glucose
21. Which of the following alcohols is commonly used as a fuel or fuel additive?
A
Butanol
B
Propanol
C
Methanol
D
Ethanol
22. Which of the following is a function of the Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)?
A
Modification of sugars
B
Synthesis of proteins
C
Manufacture of lipids
D
Assembly of ribosomes
23. A body moves along a straight line with varying speed. Its displacement in 10 s is 50 m. What is the average velocity?
A
5 m/s
B
10 m/s
C
25 m/s
D
50 m/s
24. When lead nitrate reacts with potassium iodide, a yellow precipitate of compound ‘X’ is formed. Identify compound X.
A
Lead(II) iodide (PbI2)
B
Potassium nitrate (KNO3)
C
Lead(II) nitrate [Pb(NO3)2]
D
Lead(II) nitrite [Pb(NO2)2]
25. Which of the following statements about electric field lines is correct?
A
They are always straight lines
B
They start on negative charges and end on positive charges
C
They never intersect
D
They can form closed loops
26. A car travels from City A to City B, a distance of 150 km, at a speed of 60 km/hr. On the way back, due to heavy traffic, the car's speed decreases. If the total time for the round trip is 7 hours 30 min, what is the speed during the return trip? 3003
A
30 km/hr
B
42 km/hr
C
36 km/hr
D
45 km/hr
27. Arrange the following schemes in the ascending order of their discounts.
A
C, A, B
B
B, C, A
C
C, B, A
D
A, B, C
28. In an examination, the percentage of students who qualified from school X to the number of students who appeared from that school is 80%. In school Y, the number of students who appeared is 15% more than those from school X, and the number of students who qualified is 30% more than the number of students qualified from school X. What is the percentage of students qualified to the number of students who appeared from school Y (rounded off to one decimal place)?
A
90.4%
B
80.4%
C
84.6%
D
88.8%
29. Water flows through a cylindrical pipe of diameter 14 cm at a speed of 15 km/hr into a rectangular tank 50 m long and 44 m wide. How long will it take for the water level in the tank to rise by 21 cm?
A
2.5 hours
B
2 hours
C
1.5 hours
D
3 hours
30. Thomas is 38 years old. His nephew is 26 years younger than him. In how many years will Thomas’s age be 14 years less than three times his nephew’s age?
A
8
B
5
C
3
D
2
31. Ravi’s father is 4 times as old as Ravi. After 5 years, the father’s age will be 3 times Ravi’s age. What is Ravi’s present age?
A
12 years
B
18 years
C
15 years
D
10 years
32. Aakash, Suman and Raj invest ₹1,720, ₹1,690 and ₹1,240, respectively, to start a business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹1,440, then what is the share of Raj in the profit?
A
₹385
B
₹381
C
₹384
D
₹382
33. The curved surface area of a cylinder is 528 m 2 and its volume is 1848 m 3 . Find the total surface area (in m 2 ) of the cylinder.
A
842
B
832
C
836
D
840
34. Prakhar and Riya together invested ₹33,500 in a business. At the end of the year, out of a total profit of ₹6,700, Prakhar's share was ₹2,000. What was Prakhar's investment?
A
₹10,000
B
₹8,540
C
₹10,370
D
₹11,210
35. If a X m long train running at a speed of 59 m/sec crosses a railway platform in 9 sec. Find the value of X, if the length of the railway platform is 279 m.
A
252
B
262
C
256
D
253
36. In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at point T (inside the quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 24°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 3 : 5, then what is the difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?
A
15°
B
11°
C
12°
D
17°
37. One pipe can fill a tank in 3 minutes, while another pipe can empty the completely filled tank in 12 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how many minutes will it take to fill one-fourth of the tank?
A
4
B
2
C
3
D
1
38. In a group of 150 players consisting of males and females, 58% are males. The average weight of the male players is 82 kg, while that of the female players is 72 kg. Find the average weight (in kg) of all the players in the group.
A
77.8
B
75.9
C
77.2
D
76.4
39. The LCM of two numbers is four times their HCF. The sum of their LCM and HCF is 140. If one of the numbers is 112, find the other number.
A
25
B
28
C
26
D
27
40. If 20% of a number is added to 84, then the result is the same number. 65% of the same number is:
A
98.25
B
68.25
C
88.25
D
78.25
41. X people were given a contract for doing a piece of work in 28 days. 5 people did not turn up to work due to sickness, and the rest of the people completed the work in 30 days. What is the value of X?
A
65
B
74
C
75
D
82
42. The average age of 40 students of a class is 33 years. If the age of the teacher is also included, the average age of the whole group becomes 34 years. The age (in years) of the teacher is:
A
74
B
76
C
77
D
73
43. A manufacturer sells a transistor for ₹840 at a gain of 20% to a shopkeeper. The shopkeeper then sells it to a customer at a profit of 10%. What is the difference between the cost price to the manufacturer and the cost price to the customer (in ₹)?
A
224
B
200
C
345
D
250
44. A shopkeeper marks the price of an article at ₹5,360. Find the cost price if after allowing a discount of 8% he still gains 34% on the cost price.
A
₹3,686
B
₹3,622
C
₹3,680
D
₹3,557
45. The value of 999.99 + 99.99 + 9.99 is: 4
A
1119.99
B
1109.99
C
1109.97
D
1999.9
46. A sum of money was invested at simple interest at a certain rate for 4 years. Had it been invested at a 3% per annum higher rate, it would have fetched ₹960 more. Find the principal.
A
₹7,800
B
₹8,000
C
₹7,500
D
₹8,300
47. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. BEST - TSBE - BSET COWS - SWCO - CWOS
A
SALT - SLAT - TLAS
B
URIC - RIUC - RICU
C
PAGE - EGPA - AGPE
D
MADE - EDMA - MDAE
48. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All chalan are tax. All chalan are rebate. Conclusions: (I): Some tax are rebate. (II): All rebate are chalan.
A
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
B
Only conclusion (I) follows.
C
Only conclusion (II) follows.
D
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
49. Seven boxes B, C, D, I, J, K and L are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only I is kept above C. Only L is kept between C and J. Only K is kept below
A
Four
B
Two
C
Three
D
One
50. D, E, F, G, L, M and N are sitting in a straight line facing north. No one sits to the left of D. Only four people sit between D and G. Only three people sit to the right of M. L sits to the immediate left of E. N is not an immediate neighbour of M. Who sits at the rightmost end of the line?
A
N
B
G
C
F
D
D
51. In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the father of B’, A - B means ‘A is the mother of B’, A * B means ‘A is the sister of B’ and A ÷ B means ‘A is the brother of B’. Based on the above, how is P related to T if ‘P – Q * R + S ÷ T’?
A
Sister
B
Father’s mother
C
Mother’s sister
D
Mother’s mother
52. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 23 40 57 74 91 ?
A
107
B
108
C
105
D
106
53. Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? ILL LKN OJP RIR ?
A
MKP
B
UHT
C
OLI
D
JMK
54. Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given below. Both triads follow the same pattern. NG-LE-JL KD-IB-GI
A
RJ-OG-MP
B
QJ-OH-MO
C
RJ-OH-MP
D
QJ-OH-MP
55. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
DG-BE
B
JM-HL
C
FI-DH
D
HK-FJ
56. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 4 8 2 7 3 9 8 5 3 9 4 1 4 8 9 8 3 8 5 6 4 8 4 5 8 4 6 (Right) How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Four
D
Three
57. Each of the digits in the number 5628743 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the original number?
A
None
B
Two
C
Three
D
One
58. What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘-‘ are interchanged and ‘x’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 428 ÷ 2 + 183 x 3 - 127 = ?
A
922
B
811
C
821
D
942
59. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 312 310 306 300 292 282 ? 4226
A
270
B
274
C
272
D
276
60. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. B sits to the immediate left of F. C sits second to the right of F. E sits third to the left of B. D sits to the immediate right of A. How many people sit between G and D when counted from the left of G?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Three
D
Four
61. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (46, 56, 10) (22, 33, 11)
A
(4, 17, 10)
B
(12, 29, 14)
C
(35, 63, 25)
D
(15, 20, 5)
62. A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line, facing the north. Only two people sit to the right of X. Only two people sit between X and C. Only two people sit between A and D. D sits to the immediate left of X. B sits to the immediate right of Y. Who sits at the third position from the left end of the line?
A
W
B
D
C
A
D
C
63. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? KM 17, NP 20, QS 23, TV 26, ?
A
XY 29
B
XY 30
C
WY 29
D
WY 30
64. Refer to the number series given below and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Left) 7 4 5 5 4 7 9 8 4 3 9 2 1 5 7 9 7 8 3 3 8 2 1 9 6 9 7 (Right) How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
A
More than three
B
One
C
Three
D
Two
65. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation? 10 B 2 C 7 D 8 A 2 = ?
A
24
B
22
C
21
D
23
66. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 548 658 254 369 714 (Right) (Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) (NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.) What will be the resultant if the second digit of the second highest number is multiplied with the the third digit of the lowest number?
A
20
B
19
C
18
D
17
67. Shantanu starts from Point A and drives 4 km towards the north. He then takes a right turn, drives 5 km, then turns right and drives 7 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 10 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 3 km, and then stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified).
A
5 km towards east
B
4 km towards west
C
5 km towards north
D
9 km towards south
68. This question is based on the following words. (Left) TOK, THE, HAS, ALL, COW (Right) If in each of the words, each letter is changed to the letter immediately following it in the English alphabetical order, how many words thus formed will have no vowel? 6295
A
Two
B
One
C
Four
D
Three
69. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. MANY - YMNA - MYAN WING - GWNI - WGIN
A
UNIT - TUIN - UTNI
B
LADY - YLDA - LAYD
C
DUSK - KDUS - USKD
D
ROSE - ORSE - EOSR
70. In a certain code language, ‘CLAW’ is coded as ‘3948’ and ‘FLAW’ is coded as ‘9748’. What is the code for ‘F’ in that language?
A
9
B
4
C
7
D
8
71. Riddhima ranked 18 th from the top and 43 rd from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in the class?
A
60
B
43
C
61
D
50 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the
72. information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All denims are trousers. All trousers are shoes. Conclusions: (I): Some shoes are trousers. (II): All denims are shoes.
A
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
B
Only conclusion (I) follows
C
Only conclusion (II) follows
D
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
73. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
XTR
B
CZW
C
FBZ
D
MIG
74. In a certain code language, ‘FIRE’ is coded as ‘2739’ and ‘RISE’ is coded as ‘3978’. What is the code for ‘S’ in the given code language? 8996
A
7
B
8
C
3
D
9
75. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 310 320 321 331 332 342 ? 3526
A
341
B
342
C
344
D
343
76. Mr. Akai starts from Point A and drives 5 km towards south. He then takes a right turn, drives 15 km, turns right and drives 24 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 29 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 19 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
A
14 km to the east
B
14 km to the west
C
10 km to the north
D
10 km to the south
77. What was the name of the military operation launched by the Indian Armed Forces in response to the Pahalgam terror attack in 2025?
A
Operation SAUBHAGYA
B
Operation SINDOOR
C
Operation MANGALSUTRA
D
Operation SUHAGAN
78. In which country was the FIG Apparatus World Cup 2025, where Pranati Nayak won bronze, held?
A
Turkey
B
India
C
Japan
D
Germany
79. Who among the following won the International Booker Prize in 2025 for 'Heart Lamp'?
A
Salman Rushdie
B
Kiran Desai
C
Banu Mushtaq
D
Arundhati Roy
80. In a landmark judgment on 8 April 2025, the Supreme Court deemed which state governor's refusal to assent to 10 state bills as illegal and unconstitutional?
A
Andhra Pradesh
B
Telangana
C
Tamil Nadu
D
Maharashtra
81. In May 2025, which of the following two companies received Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) in-principle approval for cross-border payment aggregation?
A
Amazon Pay and Instamojo
B
PhonePe and Razorpay
C
PayPal and Worldline
D
Google Pay and Stripe
82. What was the theme of the 9 th International Maritime Security Conference (IMSC) organised by the Republic of Singapore in May 2025?
A
Emerging Challenges in Undersea Technologies
B
Navigating New Horizons in Maritime Innovation
C
Maritime Connectivity and Economic Growth
D
Safe and Secure Seas
83. Which IIHF goaltender was named MVP of the 2025 World Championship?
A
Leonardo Genoni
B
Zach Werenski
C
Nick Olesen
D
David Pastr ň ák
84. According to the Reserve Bank of India’s announcement in May 2025, which denomination of the Mahatma Gandhi (New) Series banknote, carrying the signature of the new RBI Governor, Sanjay Malhotra, is set to be released?
A
₹5
B
₹20
C
₹200
D
₹100
85. Vaidya Tara Chand Sharma, Vaidya Maya Ram Uniyal and Vaidya Sameer Govind Jamadagni were the recipients of which of the following awards in 2025?
A
National Award to Teachers
B
National Dhanwantari Ayurveda Awards
C
Nelson Mandela Award for Health Promotion
D
National Florence Nightingale Awards
86. Which Indian state leads in mangrove afforestation under MISHTI scheme as of February 2025?
A
West Bengal
B
Odisha
C
Gujarat
D
Andhra Pradesh
87. In May 2025, what change did the Supreme Court make regarding environmental clearances (EC)?
A
Made ECs optional
B
Rejected retrospective ECs as illegal
C
Approved retrospective clearances
D
Allowed clearances without public hearings
88. As announced by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in February 2025, what is the weight of the world's largest vertical propellant mixer for solid rocket motors?
A
5 tonnes
B
13 tonnes
C
10 tonnes
D
7 tonnes
89. What was the distance Krishna Jayasankar achieved in her record-breaking indoor shot put performance in 2025?
A
17.5 m
B
12.7 m
C
16.03 m
D
14.2 m
90. How many Kirti Chakras were conferred during the Defence Investiture Ceremony 2025 (Phase-I)?
A
5
B
7
C
6
D
4
91. With which defense organisation has the Indian Navy jointly conducted successful combat trials of the indigenously developed Multi-Influence Ground Mine (MIGM) in May 2025?
A
Armed Forces Tribunal
B
Bharat Dynamics
C
Hindustan Aeronautics
D
Defense Research and Development Organisation
92. Who among the following was elected as the President of South Korea in June 2025?
A
Lee Jun‑seok
B
Lee Jae‑myung
C
Kim Moon‑soo
D
Yoon Suk Yeol
93. According to the Finland-based Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air (CREA), which region was identified as the most polluted zone in India in October 2025?
A
Deccan Plateau
B
Indo-Gangetic Plain
C
Western Ghats
D
Eastern Himalayas
94. Up to what depth will India's first manned deep ocean mission 'Samudrayaan' be launched, using the manned submersible vehicle 'Matsya,' by the end of 2026?
A
8,000 metres
B
4,500 metres
C
9,500 metres
D
6,000 metres
95. In 2025, which Indian female athlete set a new national record in the 3000 m steeplechase event?
A
Annu Rani
B
Hima Das
C
Parul Chaudhary
D
Jyothi Yarraji
96. What was the theme of National Doctor’s Day in 2025?
A
Family Doctors on the Front Line
B
Celebrating Resilience and Healing Hands
C
Behind the Mask: Who Heals the Healers?
D
Healing Hands, Caring Hearts "
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