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Group D — Test 90
00:00
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01. In plants, how does sexual reproduction leads to better survival in offspring?
A
Offspring are exact clones
B
Offspring are born faster
C
Offspring show new genetic recombination
D
Offspring do not show any variation
02. What happens to an atom when it loses an electron?
A
It becomes neutral
B
It becomes a cation
C
It becomes an anion
D
It becomes a molecule
03. What happens to the energy of an object just before it hits the ground while falling freely?
A
Its potential energy is at its highest, and its kinetic energy becomes lowest.
B
Its kinetic energy becomes highest, and its potential energy becomes lowest.
C
It has equal amounts of potential and kinetic energy.
D
Both its kinetic and potential energy become zero.
04. In the electrolytic refining of copper, which of the following correctly describes the role of electrodes?
A
Both electrodes are made of impure copper
B
Pure copper is used as anode and impure copper as cathode
C
Impure copper is used as anode and pure copper as cathode
D
Both electrodes are made of pure copper
05. The velocity-time graph of a particle moving with uniform acceleration is a:
A
curve concave upward
B
horizontal line
C
vertical line
D
straight line inclined to time axis
06. What is the ratio of carbon to oxygen by mass, in carbon dioxide?
A
1:2
B
3:8
C
6:8
D
2:4
07. Complex tissues are made up of:
A
one type of cells
B
only one cell
C
no cells
D
more than one type of cells
08. In daily life, the heating effect of electric current is used in which of the following?
A
Electric heater, electric iron, and fuse
B
Electric fan and motor
C
Electric bell and buzzer
D
LED and torch
09. Which part of the Bryophyllum plant produces buds for vegetative propagation?
A
Leaf margins
B
Tip of the leaf
C
Flower
D
Pedicel
10. Which of the following statements is correct?
A
Magnetic field lines intersect each other.
B
Magnetic field lines always emerge from the north pole of a magnet and enter the south pole outside the magnet.
C
The magnetic field at a point is zero when field lines are dense.
D
Magnetic field lines start from the south pole and end at the north pole.
11. A train starts from rest and reaches a velocity of 36 km/hr in 3 minutes with uniform acceleration. What is the distance covered by the train during this time?
A
250 m
B
750 m
C
500 m
D
900 m
12. What is the function of the secretions from the prostate gland and seminal vesicles in the male reproductive system?
A
To prevent mixing of urine and sperms
B
To provide nutrition and aid in sperm transport
C
To destroy weak sperms
D
To eliminate waste from sperms
13. Which of the following are generally sensitive to touch and help plants in climbing?
A
Tendrils
B
Thorns
C
Seeds
D
Flowers
14. Adding dilute hydrochloric acid to zinc granules produces hydrogen gas. This is an example of which of the following?
A
Mixture formation
B
Chemical change
C
Dissolution
D
Physical change
15. Select the correct option regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): Zinc can displace copper from copper sulphate solution. Reason (R): Zinc is less reactive than copper.
A
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B
A is true, but R is false.
C
A is false, but R is true.
D
Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
16. If an object is at infinity in front of a convex lens, the image is formed:
A
at F
B
between F and 2F
C
at infinity
D
at 2F
17. What helps in the upward movement of water and minerals in plants?
A
Conversion of sunlight into starch
B
Transpiration pull and root pressure
C
Diffusion of gases in stomata
D
Active transport in leaf cells
18. In stethoscopes, the sound of the heartbeat is transmitted to the doctor’s ears because:
A
the sound waves undergo successive refraction in the tube
B
the sound waves are guided by multiple reflections in the tube
C
the sound waves are amplified by electricity
D
the sound waves are absorbed by the tube walls
19. If the radius of the Earth is halved and the masses of both interacting objects are tripled, while keeping the distance between them unchanged, how will the gravitational force between them change?
A
Decreases 3 times
B
Increases 3 times
C
Increases 9 times
D
Increases 36 times
20. Which of the following is a characteristic property of ionic compounds?
A
Strong electrostatic forces between ions
B
Insoluble in water
C
Poor electrical conductivity in molten state
D
Low melting point
21. Which of the following cell organelle is present ONLY in animal cells but not in plant cells?
A
Centrosome
B
Vacuole
C
Mitochondria
D
Golgi apparatus
22. What is formed when ethanol is oxidised using an oxidising agent like alkaline KMnO ₄ ?
A
Acetone
B
Methanoic acid
C
Ethanoic acid
D
Methane
23. Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of concentrated H ₂ SO ₄ to form:
A
sodium acetate
B
methanol
C
ethyl ethanoate
D
acetone
24. Food items such as wheat, rice, vegetables, fruits and meat contain varying amounts of pesticide residues due to which of the following phenomena?
A
Biological magnification
B
Eutrophication
C
Transpiration
D
Photosynthesis
25. Which of the following statements is true regarding the twinkling of the stars? (i) The stars twinkle as they have light of their own. (ii) The stars twinkle due to reflection of light. (iii) There is apparent change in the position of the star during the night time. (iv) The stars twinkle due to atmospheric refraction.
A
Both (iii) and (iv)
B
Both (i) and (ii)
C
Both (ii) and (iii)
D
Both (i) and (iv)
26. The value of 16 3 - 10 3 is:
A
3064
B
3096
C
2957
D
2837
27. Successive discounts of 12% and 13% are equivalent to what single discount?
A
23.44%
B
21.91%
C
22.2%
D
20.7%
28. A cuboid of dimensions 18 cm × 12 cm × 8 cm is melted and recast into smaller cubes each having an edge of 4 cm. Find the ratio of the total surface area of one small cube to that of the original cuboid.
A
2 : 19
B
1 : 10
C
2 : 21
D
3 : 19
29. If 42 is the mean proportion between x and 294, what is the value of x?
A
8
B
4
C
7
D
6
30. A shopkeeper offers the following four schemes.
A
D
B
C
C
A
D
B
31. In a test, B got 50 marks while A got 75 marks, out of 90 maximum marks. What percentage of A's marks was B's marks? (Round off the answer to two decimal places.)
A
90.33%
B
66.67%
C
83.33%
D
150.91%
32. Two pipes can fill a cistern, individually, in 100 min and 25 min, respectively. There is a pipe located at the bottom of the cistern to empty it. If all the three pipes are opened simultaneously, then the empty cistern gets filled in 40 min. How long will the pipe at the bottom of the tank take to empty the completely filled cistern if no other pipe is then open?
A
39 min
B
38 min
C
40 min
D
37 min
33. The points scored by a basketball team in a series of matches are as follows: 17, 2, 7, 27, 25, 5, 14, 18, 10, 24, 10, 8, 10, 12, 11. The value of the median is:
A
12
B
11
C
14
D
10
34. The monthly incomes of two friends Ashish and Kiran, are in the ratio 5 : 8, respectively, and each of them saves ₹75,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly expenditure is 2 : 4, find the monthly income of Ashish (in ₹).
A
1,88,500
B
1,87,500
C
2,62,500
D
1,86,500
35. Sachin bought 52 books for ₹1,120 from one shop and 47 books for ₹910 from another. What is the average price (in ₹, rounded off to two decimal places) he paid per book?
A
23.51
B
21.51
C
22.51
D
20.51
36. P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 12 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern with water in 18 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same cistern with water?
A
10
B
18
C
9
D
19
37. ₹1,287 is divided among Rahul, Monika, and Yuvraj in such a way that if ₹36, ₹22, and ₹29 are deducted from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 17:7:16. Find the actual share of Monika.
A
₹232
B
₹260
C
₹160
D
₹60
38. A man buys a sofa set for ₹24,000. He spends ₹3,000 on repairs and sells it for ₹30,000. He again buys it back for ₹28,000 and sells at a loss of ₹1,200. What is the overall profit?
A
₹1,800
B
₹1,200
C
₹1,400
D
₹1,600
39. The amount on a sum of ₹2,400 at 20% per annum compound interest, compounded annually, in 2 years will be:
A
₹3,280
B
₹3,456
C
₹3,705
D
₹3,206
40. The distance between points A and B is 966 km. Kamlesh travels from A to B at a speed of 52 km/hr and returns at a speed of 118 km/hr. Calculate Kamlesh’s average speed for the entire journey (round off the answer to two decimal places).
A
80.53 km/hr
B
69.63 km/hr
C
83.02 km/hr
D
72.19 km/hr
41. A train can travel 60% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time and reach point B, which is 60 km away, simultaneously. However, the train loses 20 minutes due to stops at stations. What is the speed of the car?
A
57.5 km/h
B
67.5 km/h
C
52.5 km/h
D
62.5 km/h
42. A 6-digit number 648XYZ is divisible by 4, 9 and 10. Find the value of X + Z – Y, where Y is the smallest possible number.
A
5
B
2
C
7
D
0
43. If 8 years ago from now, a grandmother's age was 13 times the age of her granddaughter and after 12 years from now, the grandmother's age will be 3 times her granddaughter's age, then what is the difference of their ages at present (in years)?
A
68
B
52
C
56
D
48
44. In the first round of elections, Amit received 63% of the votes. In the second round, his support decreased by 24%. What percentage of the total votes did Amit receive after the second round?
A
57.88%
B
47.88%
C
39%
D
49%
45. The respective ratios between the numerical values of a curved surface area and the volume of a right circular cylinder is 1 : 7. If the respective ratio between the diameter and height of the cylinder is 7 : 6, what is the total surface area of the cylinder?
A
4343 unit²
B
3434 unit²
C
4433 unit²
D
3344 unit²
46.
A
5
B
15.54
C
10.5
D
14.45
47. Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing towards the north. Only three people are sitting at the right of A. Only one person is sitting between A and
A
E
B
B
C
C
D
D
48. S, P, D, M, and R are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only two people are sitting between R and M when counted from the left of R. D is an immediate neighbour of M and R. P is sitting to the immediate left of R. Who are the immediate neighbours of S?
A
R and P
B
D and R
C
M and D
D
P and M
49. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 4 9 8 5 1 6 4 5 9 6 5 3 4 9 6 2 9 4 8 5 1 1 8 4 1 5 7 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
A
4
B
1
C
3
D
2
50. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statement(s). Statements: All mints are lamps. All mints are kites. All mints are jams. Conclusions: (I) All lamps are jams (II) Some jams are kites 14197
A
Only conclusion (I) follows
B
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
D
Only conclusion (II) follows
51. Shubham starts from Point A and drives 11 km towards South. He then takes a right turn, drives 7 km, turns right and drives 14 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 11 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
4 km to the east
B
4 km to the west
C
5 km to the east
D
5 km to the west
52. Seven friends D, E, F, U, V, W and X are sitting in a straight line facing the north. Only two people are seated between U and D. Only X is seated to the right of F. Only one person is seated between D and F. V is seated at some place to the right of E but at some place to the left of W. How many people are seated between W and E?
A
One
B
Three
C
Four
D
Two
53. Mr. Hepa ranked 56 th from the top and 71 st from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in his class?
A
126
B
125
C
123
D
124
54. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 68 A 2 D 7 B 5 C (25 A 5) B 9 C 30 A 6 = ?
A
28
B
61
C
49
D
35
55. If 1 is added to each odd digit and 1 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 3215674, what will be the sum of the digits which are first from the left and third from the right?
A
6
B
8
C
7
D
9
56. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 92 A 2 D (35 A 7) B 4 C 30 A 3 C 5 B 11 = ?
A
80
B
91
C
73
D
102
57. Select the pair that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. NJL−OKM CYA−DZB
A
IEG−IFG
B
IDE−JFH
C
IDE−IEG
D
IEG−JFH
58. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 84 77 70 ? 56 49 42
A
68
B
66
C
60
D
63
59. 54 people are standing in a row facing North. Junaid is 21 st from the left end, while Sourav is 12 th from the right end. How many people are there between Junaid and Sourav?
A
18
B
21
C
19
D
20
60. VHEP is related to OAXI in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, TFCN is related to MYVG. To which of the following options is YKHS related, following the same logic?
A
RLDE
B
RDAL
C
RADE
D
RDSE
61. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
TXZ
B
RVX
C
HLP
D
LPR
62. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 604, 895, 469, 742, 307 (Right) (Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) Note: All operations to be done from left to right. What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second digit of the lowest number? \
A
5
B
9
C
12
D
16
63. In a certain code language, ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’, ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’, ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’, ‘A % B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ and ‘A # B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’. How is C related to R if ‘C # N × K % T + R’?
A
Mother’s mother
B
Sister’s daughter
C
Mother’s sister
D
Mother’s father
64. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All forks are kettles. Some forks are spoons. Conclusions: (I): Some kettles are spoons. (II): All spoons are forks.
A
Only conclusion (II) follows
B
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
C
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
D
Only conclusion (I) follows
65. In a certain code language, WASO is coded as 65 and YKSB is coded as 64. What is the code for LEUC in that language?
A
52
B
57
C
50
D
48
66. GBCI is related to YTUA in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, AVWC is related to SNOU. To which of the following options is CXYE related, following the same logic?
A
UIOP
B
UPQW
C
UPNH
D
UQWE
67. Hitesh starts from Point A and drives 62 km towards the east. He then takes a left turn, drives 36 km, turns left and drives 78 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 71 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 16 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
A
37 km to the south
B
34 km to the north
C
36 km to the south
D
35 km to the north
68. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
KOT
B
WAE
C
ZDI
D
HLQ
69. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? DEA 48 CDZ 55 BCY 62 ABX 69 ?
A
ZAW 76
B
ZIS 75
C
ZBV 76
D
ZZV 75
70. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 15, 22, 36, 57, 85, ?
A
122
B
119
C
121
D
120
71. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 412 420 408 424 404 428 ?
A
432
B
400
C
408
D
424
72. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). (Left) 9 3 5 7 2 4 6 1 8 9 2 5 3 7 4 6 1 8 9 5 2 4 (Right) How many unique single-digit numbers in the series are divisible by 3 (each single-digit number counted only once, regardless of repetitions)?
A
Three
B
Two
C
None
D
One
73. In a certain code language, ‘never judge people’ is coded as ‘gu uf ha’ and ‘don't ask people’ is coded as ‘kl td uf’. How is ‘people’ coded in that language? (All codes are two- letter codes.)
A
uf
B
td
C
ha
D
gu
74. Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 2 1 7 9 4 5 3 4 4 1 8 2 2 4 4 9 7 6 9 9 4 6 2 9 9 8 7 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there (from left to right) each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number? 6623
A
3
B
0
C
2
D
1
75. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? GDA IFC KHE MJG ?
A
OKI
B
OKJ
C
OLJ
D
OLI
76. In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operation(s) to the first number. Select the number-pair in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) 19, 35 28, 53
A
36, 69
B
73, 145
C
85, 166
D
42, 85
77. Who won the prestigious Yuva Puraskar in Hindi for the poetry collection, Phir Ugna, in June 2025?
A
Mayur Khavdu
B
Parvati Tirkey
C
Subrat Senapati
D
Akhil P Dharmajan
78. At which event did the DRDO official announce the development of the new high-calibre Pinaka rocket with a range of 120 km?
A
Defence Expo 2025
B
Aero Expo 2025
C
International Defence Conference 2025
D
Aero India 2025
79. Which of the following International events did India host in 2025 that is considered one of the largest gatherings of its kind and showcases India’s global standing in inclusive sports?
A
Commonwealth Games 2026
B
World Para Athletics Championships 2025
C
FIFA Women’s World Cup 2025
D
Summer Universiade 2025
80. As per the Sustainable Development Report 2025, which rank did India secure in the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) Index, marking its first entry into the “top 100” nations?
A
74
B
85
C
99
D
98
81. Which among the following got a six-year support plan announced in Union Budget 2025-2026 to reduce imports?
A
Steel
B
Pulses
C
Electronics
D
Oil seeds
82. In June 2025, Karnataka raised the housing reservation quota for religious minorities from 10% to what percentage?
A
18%
B
15%
C
12%
D
20% Accordioning to the Indian Government, by the June 2025, how many
83. Khelo India Centres (KICs) were established for grassroots sports training and athlete development?
A
1045
B
936
C
1000
D
950
84. In November 2025, which organization delivered a human-rated Vikas engine to the Indian Space Research Organisation for the Gaganyaan mission?
A
Larsen & Toubro
B
Godrej Aerospace
C
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
D
Bharat Dynamics Limited
85. Which of the following is NOT included among the four Labour Codes implemented in 2025?
A
Code on Social Security, 2020
B
Code on Wages, 2019
C
Industrial Relations Code, 2020
D
Code on Education, 2021
86. Who inaugurated the football stadium at Police Complex, Chumoukedima near Dimapur, Nagaland, in January 2025?
A
Conrad Sangma
B
N. Biren Singh
C
Temjen Imna Along
D
Neiphiu Rio
87. According to the October 2025 Monetary Policy Report of the Reserve Bank of India, what is the revised CPI inflation projection for FY 2025–26?
A
2.6%
B
3.4%
C
3.1%
D
2.2%
88. Which city hosted the 28 th National Conference on e-Governance in September 2025?
A
New Delhi
B
Bengaluru
C
Visakhapatnam
D
Hyderabad
89. Where was the 2025 Champions League final held?
A
Santiago Bernabéu, Madrid
B
Allianz Arena, Munich
C
Camp Nou, Barcelona
D
Wembley Stadium, London
90. Who among the following was appointed as the Deputy Chief Executive Officer (Deputy CEO) of SBI General Insurance in June 2025?
A
Naveen Chandra Jha
B
Anand Pejawar
C
Indrani Dutta
D
Mohd. Arif Khan
91. In 2025, the UN General Assembly urged to grant UN membership as the 194 th country to which of the following countries?
A
Vatican City
B
South Sudan
C
Palestine
D
Kosovo
92. Which group set a Guinness World Record by performing 108 Surya Namaskars with over 22,000 tribal students?
A
Andhra Pradesh tribal students
B
Gujarat volunteers
C
Maharashtra yoga groups
D
Rajasthan school children
93. The Chhattisgarh Chief Minister in August 2025 directed officials to extend assistance to families affected by floods in which of the following divisions?
A
Surguja
B
Bilaspur
C
Bastar
D
Raipur
94. When is Hindi Journalism Day celebrated every year in India?
A
30 May
B
5 May
C
18 February
D
9 April
95. Which of the following cyber security exercises was launched by the Indian Armed Forces in 2025 to simulate real-world threats and promote secure practices?
A
Raksha Netra
B
Cyber Suraksha
C
Sainya SecureNet
D
Cyber Kavach
96. What is a key aim of the Aravalli Green Wall Project launched on the World Environment Day in June 2025?
A
Expanding green cover to combat desertification
B
Mounting vertical gardens in Mumbai
C
Establishing national parks across Himalayas
D
Building embankments in Punjab "
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