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Group D — Test 88
00:00
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01. What was the primary goal of the Chipko Movement of the Garhwal region?
A
Cutting of forest
B
Grazing of forest
C
Protection of the forest
D
Aforestation
02. In a hypotonic solution, which of the following statements is correct for animal tissues compared with plant tissues?
A
Animal cells are more likely to lyse without an external wall.
B
Animal cells shrink more than plant cells in dilute media.
C
Animal cells resist swelling due to a rigid wall.
D
Animal cells have thicker cellulose walls than plants.
03. Which of the following features enables simple squamous epithelium to efficiently carry out diffusion?
A
Presence of multiple layers of cells
B
Cells with cilia for movement
C
Flat, thin, and closely packed cells
D
Thick cytoplasm with large nuclei
04. In a 250 mL solution, 5 g of solute is dissolved. What is the concentration (mass by volume %) of the solution?
A
0.2%
B
20%
C
5%
D
2%
05. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A
Only b
B
a and b
C
a and c
D
Only a
06. The principal focus of a spherical mirror is defined as:
A
The distance between object and image
B
The midpoint of the radius of curvature
C
The point on the principal axis where parallel rays converge (or appear to diverge) after reflection
D
The center of the mirror’s reflecting surface
07. Which proteins are essential for muscle contraction and relaxation?
A
Myoglobin and haemoglobin
B
Elastin and fibrin
C
Contractile proteins
D
Keratin and collagen
08. What do the ovary and ovule form after fertilisation in plants?
A
Ovary forms the plumule and ovule forms the radicle.
B
Ovary forms the fruit and ovule forms the seed.
C
Ovary forms the fruit and ovule forms the cotyledons.
D
Ovary forms the seed and ovule forms the embryo.
09. If two daughter cells produced by cell division show minor differences in their structure, which process during DNA copying most likely caused these variations?
A
The absence of DNA blueprints in the nucleus
B
Minor variations occur during DNA copying due to the inherent unreliability of biochemical reactions
C
The separation of DNA copies into new cells is incomplete
D
Errors in protein synthesis after DNA copying
10. In a laboratory, a student mixes starch in water and observes that the mixture is neither a true solution nor a suspension. What property of this mixture confirms it is a colloidal solution?
A
The particles scatter a beam of light but do not settle on standing.
B
The particles settle down after some time.
C
The mixture is completely transparent and does not scatter light.
D
The particles are visible to the naked eye.
11. In which of the following reactions does colour change, gas evolution, and solid residue formation, all occur simultaneously during decomposition?
A
CaCO ₃ → CaO + CO ₂
B
2AgCl → 2Ag + Cl ₂
C
2KClO ₃ → 2KCl + 3O ₂
D
Pb(NO ₃ ) ₂ → PbO + NO ₂ + O ₂
12. If the value of the Universal Gravitational Constant (G), the mass of the Earth (M), and the radius of the Earth (R) are known, which equation is used to calculate the acceleration due to gravity (g) near the Earth's surface?
A
g=GR/M2
B
g=GM/R
C
R2/(GM)
D
g=GM/R2
13. A mixture differs from a compound in that:
A
its components retain their properties
B
it has fixed proportions of elements
C
it shows combined properties only
D
its components cannot be separated
14. What is the correct definition of one unit of force (1 newton)?
A
The force needed to move a 1 kg object to a distance of 1 metre
B
The force required to keep an object at rest
C
The force that causes a 1 kg object to accelerate at 1 m/s²
D
The force that causes a 1 g object to accelerate at 1 metre
15. The Tyndall effect is observed when:
A
light reflects from a mirror surface
B
light is scattered by very fine particles suspended in a medium
C
light is absorbed by particles in a solution
D
light passes through a vacuum
16. An electric geyser has a power of 2200 W when it is operated at 220 V. How much will be the current flowing through the heater?
A
10 A
B
1 A
C
100 A
D
1100 A
17. An atom contains 17 electrons and 18 neutrons. Find the number of protons.
A
17
B
36
C
35.5
D
18
18. Which of the following statements is correct about Ohm’s law?
A
Current is directly proportional to voltage at constant temperature.
B
Ohm’s law is applicable to all materials at all temperatures.
C
Resistance remains constant only for non-ohmic conductors.
D
Current is inversely proportional to voltage at constant temperature.
19. Which of the following statements is true about work done by a constant force?
A
It depends only on the initial and final positions
B
It is independent of displacement
C
It depends on the path of motion
D
It is always positive
20. Starting from rest, a car attains a velocity of 10 m/s in 20 s. Braking reduces the velocity to 5 m/s in the next 5 s. What is the respective acceleration in the two scenarios?
A
1 m/s2 ; 0.5 m/s2
B
0.5 m/s2 ; -1 m/s2
C
0.5 m/s2 ; 1 m/s2
D
-1 m/s2 ; 0.5 m/s2
21. The process of transfer of pollen grains from one flower to the stigma of another flower is called ______.
A
guttation
B
germination
C
pollination
D
gestation
22. Why is graphite a good conductor of electricity?
A
It melts at low temperatures.
B
It absorbs water easily.
C
It has free-moving electrons.
D
It forms strong ionic bonds.
23. In wastewater treatment plant, the biogas is obtained from which of the following substance?
A
Dried leaves
B
Coconut husk
C
Sludge
D
Banana peels
24. When an iron nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution, which of the following observations confirms that a displacement reaction has occurred?
A
The solution remains blue, and the iron nail remains shiny.
B
The solution turns colourless, and hydrogen gas is released.
C
A white precipitate is formed.
D
The blue colour of the copper sulphate solution fades, and a reddish-brown deposit appears on the iron nail.
25. Which of the following animals produces infrasound?
A
Whales and elephants
B
Horses and cows
C
Birds and snakes
D
Dogs and cats
26. The amount on a sum of ₹5,000 at 18% per annum compound interest, compounded annually, in 2 years will be:
A
₹6,984
B
₹7,068
C
₹6,962
D
₹7,015
27. The sum of the first 13 prime numbers is:
A
235
B
243
C
241
D
238
28. Find the effective price percentage of the marked price after three consecutive discounts of 10%, 27% and 8% (rounded off to two decimal places).
A
59.64%
B
58.28%
C
60.44%
D
62.64%
29. The cost of a washing machine is 25% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the washing machine increases by 75% and that of the TV decreases by 49%, then what is the percentage change in the total cost of 6 washing machines and 3 TVs?
A
Decrease by 26.4%
B
Increase by 25.4%
C
Increase by 24.5%
D
Decrease by 19.5%
30. Two trains of lengths 316 m and 349 m are running at speeds of 58 km/h and 68 km/h, respectively, on parallel tracks in opposite directions. In how many seconds will they cross each other?
A
22 seconds
B
27 seconds
C
19 seconds
D
30 seconds
31. 11134
A
34 minutes
B
30 minutes
C
28 minutes
D
23 minutes
32. Water flows through a cylindrical pipe of internal diameter 14 cm at 5 metre per second. Calculate the time (in minutes) the pipe would take to fill an empty rectangular tank 8 m × 6 m × 4.62 m.
A
50
B
44
C
48
D
46
33. A is three times as old as B. If six years are subtracted from B's age and four years are added to A's age, then A's age will be five times B's age. How old was A two years ago?
A
49 years
B
40 years
C
54 years
D
36 years
34. A person’s monthly income is ₹60,000. He spends 25% of his income on rent, 15% on groceries, 10% on transportation and saves the rest. How much money does he save every month?
A
₹30,000
B
₹25,000
C
₹40,000
D
₹45,000
35. Simplify: (x + 5)(x − 5)
A
x² + 10x + 25
B
x² − 25
C
x² + 25
D
x² − 10x + 25
36. For 7 innings, a cricketer had an average of 59 runs. In the 8 th inning, he scored 217 runs. His average score increased by ______. (Round off the answer to the nearest whole number.)
A
29
B
11
C
19
D
20
37. If the fourth proportion to 5, X and 3 is 63, then find the value of X. 4886
A
108
B
107
C
106
D
105
38. A and B can complete a piece of work in 8 days and 12 days, respectively. A starts working on the task and after 3 days, B joins him. How many more days will it take to finish the work after B joins?
A
5 days
B
3 days
C
4 days
D
2 days
39. The volume of the cube is 1728 cm 3 . Find its total surface area.
A
864 cm2
B
664 cm2
C
464 cm2
D
144 cm2
40. ₹5,403 is divided among A, B, and C in such a way that if ₹79, ₹25, and ₹19 be deducted from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 14:5:11. Find the difference between the B’s and C’s original shares.
A
₹1,050
B
₹1,206
C
₹956
D
₹1,156
41. The mode of given list of numbers 115, 190, 110, 185, 85, 110, 115, 102, 90, 95, 85, 68, 85 is: 6536
A
110
B
92
C
85
D
68
42. Bibha bought a number of bananas at 2 for a rupee and an equal number at 3 for a rupee. To make a profit of 40%, she should sell a dozen for ₹ .
A
8
B
6
C
7
D
5
43. One pipe can fill a tank in 6 minutes, while another pipe can empty the completely filled tank in 7 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how many minutes will it take to fill one-half of the tank?
A
21
B
22
C
43
D
42
44. In a basketball game, a player scored 36 points using only 2-point shots and 3-point shots. She made 14 successful shots in total. How many 2-point and how many 3-point shots did she make?
A
Number of 2-point shots = 10; Number of 3-point shots = 4
B
Number of 2-point shots = 7; Number of 3-point shots = 7
C
Number of 2-point shots = 6; Number of 3-point shots = 8
D
Number of 2-point shots = 8; Number of 3-point shots = 6
45. A dealer marks his goods at 25% above the cost price and allows a discount of 68% on the marked price. What is his gain or loss percentage?
A
60% loss
B
57% loss
C
58% loss
D
63% gain
46. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 17 28 ? 50 61 72
A
31
B
39
C
40
D
36
47. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 49 ÷ 5 + 153 × 3 − 314 = ?
A
521
B
508
C
505
D
512
48. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right. (Left) 9 8 7 4 5 2 5 3 8 4 3 6 2 1 5 7 9 3 1 5 7 4 6 2 3 7 4 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
6
B
3
C
4
D
5
49. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 16, 22, 34, 52, 76, ?
A
106
B
107
C
105
D
104
50. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 521 523 527 533 541 ?
A
551
B
553
C
555
D
549
51. In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’, A # B means ‘A is the brother of B’, A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’, A @ B means ‘A is the father of B’. Based on the above, how is L related to R if ‘L @ O x V # E + R’?
A
Brother's son
B
Wife's father
C
Brother's wife's brother
D
Brother's wife's father
52. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? KJN 72 RQU 63 YXB 54 FEI 45 ?
A
MKO 35
B
MLP 36
C
MMO 36
D
MUD 35
53. Wamiq starts from point A and drives 78 km towards the west. He then takes a right turn, drives 81 km, turns right and drives 80 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 90 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
A
7 km to the north
B
10 km to the south
C
9 km to the north
D
11 km to the south
54. Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. WZX−ZCA CFD−FIG
A
DGE−FJG
B
DFC−GJH
C
DFC−FIG
D
DGE−GJH
55. In a certain code language, NSQE is coded as 165 and XIJA is coded as 132. What is the code for PEYO in that language?
A
170
B
188
C
183
D
179
56. What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 32 + 34 − 35 × 5 ÷ 22 = ?
A
150
B
154
C
153
D
152
57. In a certain code language, ‘PEARL’ is coded as ‘18723’ and ‘PAYER’ is coded as ‘82736’. What is the code for ‘Y’ in that language?
A
6
B
8
C
3
D
2
58. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All bottles are cups. All bottles are glasses. Some glasses are teapots. Conclusions: (I): Some teapots are bottles. (II): Some glasses are cups.
A
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
B
Only conclusion (I) follows
C
Only conclusion (II) follows
D
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
59. In a row of 50 students facing north, Parash is 18th from the left end. If Aparna is 7th to the right of Parash, what is Aparna's position from the right end of the row?
A
23rd
B
26th
C
25th
D
24th
60. PNHT is related to VILQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, MSDT is related to SNHQ. To which of the given options is IRUI related, following the same logic?
A
PMZF
B
PNZE
C
OMYF
D
ONYE
61. Seven friends, B, C, D, T, U, V and W, are sitting in a straight line facing north. All friends sits to the left of C. Only three people sit between C and T. Only two people sit between T and V. B sits third to the left of D. W sits to the immediate right of D. How many people sit between U and V?
A
Three
B
Four
C
Two
D
One
62. Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the following series to make it logically complete? PGE 18, TEI 26, XCM 34, BAQ 42, ?
A
FCV 52
B
FCU 52
C
FYU 50
D
GYV 50
63. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single digit numbers only.) (Left) 5 4 4 2 6 3 6 4 6 4 7 9 4 5 8 8 2 5 3 1 7 4 8 5 9 4 1 2 7 4 (Right) How many such prime digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
A
One
B
Two
C
More than three
D
Three
64. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. B sits second to the left of E. D is an immediate neighbour of F. C sits to the immediate left of F. C sits second to the right of A. What is the position of E with respect to F?
A
Immediate left
B
Second to the left
C
Immediate right
D
Second to the right
65. A man is standing on the roof facing east. First, he turns 45 degrees clockwise, then 45 degrees anticlockwise. He then turns 180 degrees anticlockwise. Finally, he turns 90 degrees clockwise. In which direction is the man facing now?
A
North
B
East
C
South
D
West
66. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed) 19 - 2 - 21 14 - 6 - 20 1418
A
30 - 11 - 43
B
9 - 13 - 24
C
19 - 10 - 29
D
15 - 4 - 21
67. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All crows are sparrows. No crow is a pigeon. Conclusions: (I): No sparrow is a pigeon. (II): Some pigeons are crows.
A
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
B
Only conclusion (I) follows
C
Only conclusion (II) follows
D
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
68. In a row of 19 people facing north, Geetha is 6 th from the left end. If Divya sits 5 th to the right of Geetha, then what is Divya’s position from the right end of the row?
A
8th
B
11th
C
10th
D
9th
69. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Left) 4 1 6 2 9 3 3 6 4 1 8 6 5 6 8 6 9 5 6 1 6 4 8 6 2 8 7 4 8 2 (Right) How many 6’s are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
One
B
Three
C
Two
D
More than three
70. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 7 ÷ 5 + 12 × 3 − 19 = ? + 5
A
50
B
45
C
60
D
55
71. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
QVP
B
MRL
C
EJD
D
TYR
72. P, Q, R, S, and T are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. R is sitting second to the right of P. T is sitting second to the right of S. P is to the immediate left of S. Who is to the immediate right of T?
A
S
B
Q
C
R
D
P
73. In the following triad, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. DRAWING - ADRWGIN - RADWNGI FORMULA - RFOMAUL - ORFMLAU
A
FASHION - SAFNHIO - FASONHI
B
FASHION - SAFHNIO - ASFHONI
C
FASHION - SFAHNIO - ASFHONI
D
FASHION - SFAHNOI - ASFIHNO
74. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
MP - KN
B
JM - HK
C
KN - IM
D
GJ - EH
75. Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 9 6 4 8 7 7 7 7 7 1 3 6 4 7 2 3 1 8 5 6 8 9 9 9 4 9 8 (Right) How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
2
B
3
C
5
D
4
76. When did/will the new FASTag annual plan become effective in India?
A
2 October 2025
B
1 September 2025
C
15 August 2025
D
26 November 2025
77. What is the name of India's first humanoid robot developed for space missions, announced in 2023?
A
Vyommitra
B
Aditya
C
Vikram
D
Suryamitra
78. Who set a new world indoor 5000 m race walk record at the Italian Indoor Championships in Ancona (Feb 2025)?
A
Francesco Fortunato
B
Matteo Giupponi
C
Toshikazu Yamanishi
D
Evan Dunfee
79. In 2025, India raised concerns with China regarding the construction of a major upstream hydropower project, urging protection of downstream rights. This project is being developed on which river?
A
Kosi
B
Indus
C
Sutlej
D
Brahmaputra
80. Which data collection method contributed to the accurate poverty estimates in India, as per the SBI report in June 2025?
A
Uniform Recall Period
B
Mixed Recall Period
C
Modified Mixed Recall Period
D
Periodic Recall Method
81. In July 2025, the Union Environment Ministry notified the Environment Protection Rules, 2025, for which sites?
A
Chemically Contaminated Sites
B
Crowded Sites
C
Tourist Sites
D
Hilltop Sites
82. Who co-chaired the AI Action Summit held in Paris in February 2025?
A
Prime Minister Narendra Modi and President Emmanuel Macron
B
Prime Minister Narendra Modi and President Joe Biden
C
Chancellor Olaf Scholz and President Emmanuel Macron
D
Prime Minister Rishi Sunak and President Emmanuel Macron
83. The 15 th edition of the India‑Vietnam Defence Policy Dialogue (DPD) was held in which of the following cities in November 2025?
A
Ho Chi Minh
B
Hanoi
C
Pune
D
New Delhi
84. On which date is Birsa Munda Martyr’s Day observed, as commemorated every year?
A
15th August
B
9th June
C
5th November
D
26th January
85. At the Bharat Climate Forum 2026, Shri C. P. Radhakrishnan stated that effective climate action can help India in which of the following?
A
Reducing agricultural exports
B
Limiting population growth
C
Focusing solely on fossil fuels
D
Strengthening energy security
86. What is the name of the comprehensive strategic partnership treaty signed in January 2025, between Russia and Iran, covering defense, energy, cybersecurity and regional cooperation?
A
Iranian–Russian Treaty on Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
B
Iran–Russia Treaty on Comprehensive Defence and Trade Partnership
C
Iran–Russia Treaty on Business and Strategic Cooperation Treaty
D
Iranian–Russian Treaty on Coordination and Security Partnership
87. Which tribal poet from Jharkhand received the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar in June 2025 for ‘Phir Ugna’?
A
Akhil P Dharmajan
B
Mayur Khavdu
C
Parvati Tirkey
D
Kirtida Brahmbhatt
88. What was India’s rank in the 2025 SDG Index released by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network?
A
121st
B
87th
C
78th
D
99th
89. Which significant new financial institution was launched in June 2025 to support India’s maritime economy?
A
Blue Economy Bank
B
Sagarmala Finance Corporation Ltd.
C
India Marine Credit Bank
D
Coastal Infrastructure Fund
90. What approximate percentage of the Union Budget 2025-26 was allocated to gender- specific schemes to address women’s empowerment?
A
12.21%
B
8.86%
C
2.68%
D
4.56%
91. At which competition did Gurindervir Singh break the national 100 m record?
A
Asian Games
B
Indian Grand Prix 1
C
Olympic Trials
D
South Asian Championships
92. At the World Governments Summit 2025 in Dubai, which of the following awards recognised pioneering government initiatives worldwide for innovation and social impact?
A
Government Innovation Excellence Award
B
Global Public Leadership Award
C
Smart Governance Achievement Award
D
Global Government Excellence Award
93. As of August 2025, who among the following was the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?
A
Dr. Poonam Gupta
B
Shri Saugata Bhattacharya
C
Dr. Nagesh Kumar
D
Shri Sanjay Malhotra
94. Which league launched in January 2025 featured international kabaddi teams and set up record-level participation?
A
World Kabaddi League
B
Kabaddi Premier Series
C
Global Indian Pravasi Kabaddi League
D
Indian Super Kabaddi
95. In April 2025, at the National Federation Cup Athletics held at Maharaja's College Ground in Ernakulam, which Indian long jumper broke Anju Bobby George's 23-year-old national record with a jump of 6.64 m?
A
Priyanka Goswami
B
D Sudha Singh
C
Shaili Singh
D
Ancy Sojan "
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