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Group D — Test 85
00:00
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01. Which of the following increases the rate of evaporation?
A
Dense atmosphere and generally cool weather
B
High humidity and absence of wind movement
C
Low surface area and cold air temperature
D
High temperature and increased wind speed
02. A person shows high blood sugar levels even after eating small amounts of food. What may be the cause?
A
Low thyroxine
B
Excess growth hormone
C
Excess estrogen
D
Lack of insulin
03. Match the following pH change and its effect. Column A (Change) Column B (Effect)
A
A-1; B-4; C-3; D-2
B
A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2
C
A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3
D
A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1
04. In the given reaction, which of the following reactants has undergone oxidation? PbO + H 2 → Pb + H 2 O
A
H2
B
PbO
C
Pb
D
H2O
05. Which part of the flower protects the ovule and later transforms into the fruit?
A
Petal
B
Sepal
C
Ovary
D
Stigma
06. Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): Vasectomy leads to loss of sexual drive in males. Reason (R): It involves removal of the testes.
A
A is false, but R is true
B
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C
Both A and R are false
D
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
07. Why is variation important in a population of organisms?
A
It helps some individuals survive if environmental conditions change.
B
It prevents reproduction.
C
It causes extinction of all organisms.
D
It makes organisms identical.
08. Read the given statements carefully and select the correct option. Statement 1: Fleming’s left-hand rule is used to find the direction of force (motion) on a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field. Statement 2: The force on the conductor acts perpendicular to both the current and the magnetic field.
A
Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
B
Statement 1 is incorrect, but 2 is correct.
C
Statement 1 is correct, but 2 is incorrect.
D
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
09. Read the given Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and select the correct option. (A): Sound waves are transverse waves. (R): Sound waves require a material medium for their propagation.
A
Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B
Assertion is true but reason is false.
C
Assertion is false and reason is true.
D
Both assertion and reason are false.
10. The atomic number of an element is equal to which of the following?
A
Number of neutrons + number of protons
B
Number of neutrons
C
Number of protons
D
Number of electrons
11. Which element is necessary for the thyroid gland to secrete the thyroxine hormone?
A
Chlorine
B
Iodine
C
Fluorine
D
Bromine
12. In multicellular organisms, why can't simple diffusion alone meet the requirements of all cells?
A
Because body size and complexity increase
B
Because diffusion requires light
C
Because diffusion only transports oxygen
D
Because all cells are directly exposed to air
13. Which characteristic of parallel circuits makes them advantageous over series circuits for connecting multiple electrical gadgets in a house?
A
If one component fails, the entire circuit is broken.
B
The total resistance is increased, protecting appliances.
C
The potential difference across each gadget is unique.
D
The current is divided among the electrical gadgets, allowing them to operate independently.
14. Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of epithelial tissue?
A
Cells have no intercellular spaces.
B
Skin, kidney tubules are made up of epithelial tissue.
C
Cells form a continuous sheet.
D
Cells are loosely arranged.
15. What will be the acceleration due to gravity on a planet whose mass and radius are double that of the Earth? (Take the acceleration due to gravity on Earth as g.)
A
g/2
B
2g
C
g
D
g/4
16. Which of the following mixtures is a suspension?
A
Salt water
B
Vinegar
C
Milk
D
Muddy water
17. Which of the following compounds would have the highest pH when dissolved in water?
A
Hydrogen chloride gas
B
Vinegar solution
C
Sodium hydroxide
D
Lemon juice
18. In the absence of any external force, a moving body will _______.
A
Maintain a constant velocity in straight line
B
Stop due to its inertia
C
Continue to move with constant acceleration
D
Slow down and change its path
19. For a convex mirror, where is the centre of curvature located?
A
At the mirror's surface
B
At the focus
C
In front of the mirror
D
Behind the mirror
20. Which of the following is NOT a function of the cell wall?
A
Providing shape to the cell
B
Synthesising proteins for the cell
C
Protecting the cell from mechanical damage
D
Helping in cell-to-cell interaction
21. To accurately locate the image of an extended object formed by a spherical mirror using a ray diagram, what is the minimum number of reflected rays that must intersect (or appear to intersect)?
A
Two rays
B
One ray
C
Four rays
D
Three rays
22. If the velocity–time graph of an object is curved, it indicates ____________.
A
Constant speed
B
Non-uniform acceleration
C
Uniform motion
D
Zero velocity
23. Which of the following factors increases the rate of evaporation?
A
Decrease in wind speed
B
Decrease in temperature
C
Increase in surface area
D
Increase in humidity
24. What do members of a homologous series differ from each other by?
A
One carbon atom
B
One oxygen atom
C
One carbon atom and two hydrogen atoms
D
Two hydrogen atoms
25. Which of the following is an example of negative work?
A
Gravity acting on a falling ball
B
Pushing a moving car forward.
C
Lifting a bag upwards
D
Friction acting on a moving object
26. The marked price of a toy truck is ₹3,050, and its selling price is ₹2,220. Find the discount percentage. (Round off the answer to two decimal places.)
A
26.88%
B
25.98%
C
27.21%
D
29.73%
27. If the mean proportional of P and 169 is 104, then find the value of P. 5765
A
65
B
66
C
67
D
64
28. The average age of 31 students of a class is 35 years. If the age of the teacher is also included, the average age of the whole group becomes 36 years. The age (in years) of the teacher is:
A
72
B
68
C
67
D
69
29. The present age of Arman is four times the present age of his cousin, Riya. In 8 years, Arman's age will be three times Riya’s age at that time. What is Arman’s current age?
A
72 years
B
48 years
C
64 years
D
56 years
30. P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 9 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern with water in 12 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill three-fourth of the same cistern with water? 1243
A
55
B
27
C
54
D
28
31. Solve : 3 × (10 × (2 2 )) ÷ 20 + 13 − 3 2858
A
16
B
17
C
25
D
13
32. Two trains, each 230 meters long, are running parallel to each other in the same direction. The speed of the faster train is 102 km/h and the speed of the slower train is 66 km/h. How long will it take for the faster train to completely pass the slower train?
A
56 seconds
B
36 seconds
C
42 seconds
D
46 seconds
33. The amount on a sum of ₹2,800 at 20% per annum compound interest, compounded annually, in 2 years will be:
A
₹4,341
B
₹4,032
C
₹3,279
D
₹4,968
34. A cricketer has an average of 54 runs for 9 innings. In the 10 th inning, he scores 191 runs. By how many runs did his average increase? (Round off the answer to the nearest whole number.)
A
5
B
17
C
16
D
14
35. The sides of a triangle are 80 cm, 44 cm, and 52 cm. What is the length of its altitude corresponding to the side with a length of 44 cm?
A
61 cm
B
48 cm
C
94 cm
D
49 cm
36. In an election, there are three candidates: A, B, and C. Candidate A gets 40% of the total valid votes, Candidate B gets 30%, and Candidate C gets the remaining votes. If 12% of the total votes were declared invalid and the total number of voters was 25,000, find the number of votes received by Candidate C.
A
5500
B
6600
C
8800
D
4400
37. 104 men have provisions for 12 weeks. They are joined by 52 men. How long (in weeks) will the provisions last? 2673
A
8
B
10
C
12
D
6
38.
A
1
B
2
C
5
D
0
39. A shopkeeper offers the following four schemes.
A
B
B
D
C
A
D
C
40. Amit purchases an old scooter for ₹5,600. He spends ₹1,400 on its repairs and sells it to Sumit for ₹7,700. Find the profit percentage of Amit.
A
14%
B
9%
C
12%
D
10%
41. A cylindrical water tank with an internal radius of 70 cm and a height of 1.5 m is completely filled with water. Water is being pumped out at a rate of 5 litres per second. How long will it take for the water level to drop by 50 cm?
A
176 seconds
B
142 seconds
C
154 seconds
D
168 seconds
42. If the radius of a sphere is 6 cm, then its surface area is:
A
36 π cm2
B
144 π cm2
C
288 π cm2
D
72 π cm2
43. The sum of three numbers is 840. If the ratio of the second number to the first number is 3 : 13 and that of the third number to the second number is 8 : 12, then find the second number.
A
139
B
140
C
142
D
141
44. The cost of 3 apples and 5 bananas is ₹75. The cost of 4 apples and 2 bananas is ₹86. Find the cost of a banana.
A
₹10
B
₹5
C
₹20
D
₹3
45.
A
98.33%
B
83.33%
C
93.33%
D
166.67%
46. Two trains started from station A to B with speeds of 68 km/h and 82 km/h on parallel lines. Find the distance (in km) between the two trains after 2.5 hours.
A
15
B
40
C
35
D
25
47. Simplify: [(3x + 4y) 2 − (3x − 4y) 2 ] ÷ (24xy)
A
−1
B
−2
C
1
D
2
48. All 18 students in a class are standing in a row, facing north. Charan is 11 th from the right end, while Prakash is 3 rd from the left end. How many people stand between Charan and Prakash?
A
2
B
4
C
5
D
3
49. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 7 5 8 5 8 3 1 5 2 6 1 6 3 1 4 2 4 3 7 8 5 9 5 2 8 2 5 (Right) How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
4
B
2
C
3
D
5
50. Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit to the left of F. Only one person sits between D and E. F sits to the immediate left of D. A sits to the immediate right of C. B sits third to the right of A. Who sits at the extreme left end of the row?
A
A
B
D
C
C
D
B
51. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? PPR NQO LRL ? HTF
A
JSI
B
GHT
C
NIJ
D
IHY
52. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 2, 3, 5, 8, 12, 17, ?
A
25
B
23
C
26
D
24
53. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
VUW
B
YXZ
C
QPS
D
HGI
54. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
FI-DH
B
DG-BF
C
JM-HL
D
HK-FI
55. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 2 8 1 7 8 7 6 7 5 2 5 3 (Right) How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
A
Three
B
Four
C
Two
D
One
56. Each of the digits in the number 24597831 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the original number?
A
One
B
None
C
Two
D
Three
57. Seven boxes A, B, C, D, P, Q and R are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. No box is kept above Q. Only three boxes are kept between Q and D. Only one box is kept between C and B. B is kept immediately above D. Only four boxes are kept between C and R. A is kept at some place above P. Which box is kept second below A?
A
D
B
P
C
B
D
R
58. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some balls are hens. All vans are hens. Conclusions: (I) Some balls are vans. (II) All hens are vans.
A
Only conclusion (II) follows.
B
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D
Only conclusion (I) follows.
59. In a certain code language, ‘ride those horses’ is coded as ‘dq fn ta’ and ‘horses run wild’ is coded as ‘vy dq si’. How is ‘horses’ coded in the given language?
A
fn
B
vy
C
dq
D
ta
60. Mr. Pasto starts from point A and drives 11 km towards North. He then takes a left turn, drives 7 km, turns left and drives 13 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 21 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 2 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.) 473
A
13 km to the south
B
11 km to the south
C
12 km to the west
D
14 km to the west
61. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All torches are keys. All keys are locks. Some locks are batteries. Conclusions: (I): All torches are locks. (II): Some batteries are torches.
A
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
B
Only conclusion (II) follows
C
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
D
Only conclusion (I) follows
62. Currently, the minute hand of a watch is pointing towards the north and the hour hand is pointing towards the east. After two and a half hours, which direction will the minute hand point towards?
A
South
B
West
C
East
D
North
63. Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. STW−ZAD PQT−WXA
A
TTV−ABE
B
TTV−ZAD
C
TUX−ABE
D
TUX−ZBD
64. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 582 128 563 183 592 (Right) (Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) Note: All operations to be done from left to right. What will be the resultant if third digit of the highest number is added to the second digit of lowest number?
A
4
B
7
C
6
D
3
65. If ‘P’ stands for ‘×’, ‘Q’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘R’ stands for ‘−’ and ‘S’ stands for ‘+’, what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? (90 Q 15) P 8 R 7 P 4 S (12 P 3) Q 2 = ?
A
52
B
38
C
20
D
44
66. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 426 125 357 489 627 (Right) (Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) Note: All operations to be done from left to right. If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order, the position(s) of how many numbers will remain unchanged?
A
One
B
Two
C
Four
D
Three
67. A, B, C, D, N, O and P are sitting in a straight line, facing the north. Only two people sit to the left of N. Only three people sit between N and P. O sits second to the right of N. Only two people sit between O and D. C sits at some place to the right of B but at some place to the left of A. How many people sit to the right of C?
A
Two
B
One
C
Four
D
Three
68. Six people, A, B, C, X, Y and Z, are sitting around a circular table, facing towards the centre of the table. Z is sitting to the immediate left of A. B is sitting second to the right of Z. X is an immediate neighbour of both Y and C. Y is not an immediate neighbour of Z. What is the position of B with respect to Y?
A
Second to the left
B
Immediate right
C
Immediate left
D
Second to the right
69. In a certain code language, QOEX is coded as 50 and WPIU is coded as 42. What is the code for SANR in that language?
A
59
B
62
C
67
D
55
70. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one that follows the same logic. PAST - PSTA - ASPT QUAD - QADU - UAQD
A
TIDE - ITDE - IDET
B
IDEA - IEAD - DEIA
C
VAIN - VIAN - NIAV
D
USER - UERS - SURE
71. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 94 102 118 150 214 ?
A
341
B
342
C
344
D
343
72. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? LKN 58 MLO 65 NMP 72 ONQ 79 ? 6926
A
PNQ 85
B
POR 86
C
PPQ 86
D
PUA 85
73. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) 92 - 6 - 86 13 - 8 - 5
A
12 - 5 - 6
B
4 - 1 - 2
C
50 - 20 - 30
D
30 - 12 - 24
74. Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. YAC−GIK QSU−YAC
A
JKL−QSU
B
JLN−QTU
C
JKL−RTV
D
JLN−RTV
75. In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the son of B’, A - B means ‘A is the brother of B’, A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’, and A & B means ‘A is the father of B’. How is K related to V if ‘KxT-R+Z&V’?
A
Brother's daughter
B
Mother
C
Brother's wife
D
Sister
76. If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 7435681, then what will be the sum of the digits that are third from the left and third from the right?
A
14
B
10
C
6
D
8
77. What should come in place of ? in the given series? 17 7 -6 -22 -41 ? 6041
A
-62
B
-61
C
-63
D
-64
78. Which organisation developed Delhi's first Centre of Excellence for Sports in Dwarka's Sector 8, inaugurated in May 2025?
A
Sports Authority of India (SAI)
B
Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC)
C
Delhi Development Authority (DDA)
D
Indian Olympic Association (IOA)
79. Who won the men’s javelin event at the Ostrava Golden Spike meet in June 2025 by becoming the only athlete to throw beyond 85 metres, with a mark of 85.29 m?
A
Anderson Peters
B
Neeraj Chopra
C
Julian Weber
D
Jakub Vadlejch
80. What was the Supreme Court's decision on April 28, 2025, regarding a new petition on the Waqf (Amendment) Act?
A
It dismissed all pending cases.
B
It referred the plea to the High Court.
C
It declined to entertain the fresh plea.
D
It accepted the petition for immediate hearing.
81. Which apex agricultural research body is associated with the Indian Institute of Soil Science that organised World Soil Day celebrations in December 2025?
A
Central Soil Salinity Research Institute
B
Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
C
Indian Council of Agricultural Research
D
National Horticulture Board
82. What happens to a Prime Minister, Chief Minister, or Minister if bail is not granted within 30 days under the Constitution (130 th Amendment) Bill 2025?
A
Parliamentary review
B
Automatic removal
C
Temporary suspension
D
Legal appeal
83. Which of the following major wildlife surveys did the Indian Prime Minister announce to be conducted in 2025?
A
Bengal Tiger Count
B
16th Asiatic Lion Population Estimation
C
National Elephant Census
D
Great Indian Bustard Survey
84. Which organisation announced plans to develop a new indicator for measuring extreme poverty in India in 2025?
A
NITI Aayog
B
Reserve Bank of India
C
World Bank
D
Ministry of Statistics
85. What was the name of the official mascot of the Khelo India Para Games 2025?
A
Sparky
B
Ujjwala
C
Veer
D
Shakti
86. According to the 2025 Sustainable Development Report, what is India’s Spillover Score?
A
86.95
B
99.95
C
90.07
D
96.07
87. Where did Jeff Bezos and Lauren Sánchez hold their lavish wedding in June 2025?
A
Venice, Italy
B
Dubrovnik, Croatia
C
Santorini, Greece
D
Cannes, France
88. Who won the Men’s Ballon d’Or, 2025?
A
Ousmane Dembele
B
Lionel Messi
C
Cristiano Ronaldo
D
Kylian Mbappe
89. In June 2025, who was elected as the President of the International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS) for the 2025–2028 term from India?
A
NV Subramanian
B
KM Chandrasekhar
C
GC Murmu
D
V Srinivas
90. Valueattics Reinsurance, India’s first private reinsurer, which received the nod of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) to commence reinsurance business in India in March 2025 is promoted by which of the following individuals/entities?
A
Rakesh Jhunjhunwala and Axis Bank
B
Uday Kotak and LIC
C
Nandan Nilekani and SBI Life
D
Prem Watsa and Kamesh Goyal
91. A total of ₹6,000 crore has been allocated for the 'PM - One Nation One Subscription' initiative. How many years cost does this amount cover?
A
Three
B
Two
C
Five
D
Six
92. What were Suruchi Singh’s final two shot scores that clinched gold at the 2025 International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) World Cup in Munich?
A
10.5 and 9.5
B
10.0 and 9.0
C
9.5 and 8.5
D
10.6 and 9.6
93. Which of the following states introduced the strengthening of the SHe‑Box portal in May 2025?
A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Maharashtra
C
Tamil Nadu
D
Punjab
94. In the 2025 Global Hunger Index (GHI), where does India rank among the 123 countries assessed?
A
102nd
B
85th
C
10th
D
105th
95. What is significant about the CMS-03 satellite launch by Indian Space Research Organisation in November 2025?
A
It is the first navigation satellite mission from India.
B
It is India’s first Mars mission satellite.
C
It is the first private payload launched from India.
D
It is the heaviest communication satellite launched by India.
96. Which of the following introduced NACH 3.0 in July 2025, bringing faster and more secure bank transactions under the National Automated Clearing House (NACH) system?
A
National Payments Corporation of India
B
Life Insurance corporation
C
National Securities Depository Limited
D
Reserve Bank of India
97. As part of Tripura’s tech-driven disaster preparedness initiative launched in August 2025, how many automated weather stations and rain gauges are proposed to be installed?
A
26
B
14
C
10
D
15 "
0
Done
97
Left
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