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Group D — Test 83
00:00
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01. Water harvesting is important because it:
A
Purifies the water bodies
B
Recharges groundwater
C
Decreases the water supply to downstream areas
D
Reduces the mineral density in water bodies
02. A convex mirror always forms an image that is ________.
A
virtual, erect, and diminished
B
real, inverted, and smaller than the object
C
virtual, erect, and larger than the object
D
real, erect, and same size as the object
03. Which reaction best supports the Law of Conservation of Mass?
A
Burning of paper in open air
B
Mixing of vinegar and baking soda in a sealed container
C
Evaporation of alcohol in open air
D
Heating iron in open air
04. The resistance of a wire is 1 Ω . If it is cut into two equal parts, the resistance of each part will be:
A
2 Ω
B
4 Ω
C
1 Ω
D
0.5 Ω
05. When CO 2 reacts with calcium hydroxide, it gives calcium carbonate and water. Which property of CO 2 is seen in this reaction?
A
Oxidising property
B
Neutral property
C
Basic property
D
Acidic property
06. Why does a galvanised iron article remain protected from rusting even if the zinc coating is scratched?
A
Zinc is more reactive than iron and undergoes preferential oxidation, protecting the iron.
B
Scratches allow oil to seep in and prevent rusting.
C
Iron forms a thin layer of rust that prevents further corrosion.
D
Zinc reacts with iron to form a protective layer of iron oxide.
07. Which enzyme present in saliva helps break down starch?
A
Lipase
B
Amylase
C
Trypsin
D
Pepsin
08. Which of the following is a result of the genetic variation introduced by sexual reproduction?
A
Formation of identical twins
B
Production of genetically identical offspring
C
Evolution
D
Decreased chances of survival
09. At what pH does tooth decay begin to occur in the human mouth?
A
Exactly 6.5
B
Above 8
C
Between 7 and 8
D
Below 5.5
10. Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): Vegetative propagation helps grow plants that do not produce seeds. Reason (R): It uses flowers to grow new plants.
A
A is true, but R is false
B
A is false, but R is true
C
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
D
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
11. According to Ohm’s law, the potential difference across a conductor is:
A
independent of the current
B
equal to the resistance
C
directly proportional to the current
D
inversely proportional to the current
12. A particle accelerates uniformly at 2 m/s 2 . Its velocity changes from 5 m/s to 15 m/s. How long does this take?
A
5 s
B
7s
C
2 s
D
10 s
13. Which of the following is NOT a property of ionic compounds?
A
They are soluble in solvents such as kerosene and petrol.
B
They can conduct electricity in an aqueous/molten state.
C
They are generally solid at room temperature.
D
They generally have high melting and boiling points.
14. Prokaryotic cells differ from eukaryotic cells in having which of the following?
A
No membrane-bound nucleus
B
A true nucleus
C
Ribosomes
D
Membrane-bound organelles
15. Plastids have their own __________ and __________, similar to mitochondria.
A
enzymes; vacuoles
B
nucleus; chromosomes
C
DNA; ribosomes
D
vesicles; proteins
16. Which of the following statements suits best for the role of chemical methods of birth control in family planning?
A
They mechanically block the fallopian tubes and suppress menstruation entirely.
B
They prevent sperm from entering the uterus by thickening the vaginal wall.
C
They increase estrogen levels to promote ovulation and make fertilisation less likely.
D
They alter the hormone levels to inhibit ovulation and uterus preparation.
17. Which of the following properties of 'suspension' is INCORRECT?
A
Particles of suspension are visible to the naked eye.
B
Particles of suspension can be separated from the mixtures by the process of filtration.
C
Particles of suspension do not scatter a beam of light.
D
Suspension is a heterogeneous mixture.
18. What is the correct formula for calculating pressure, where thrust is the force applied and area is the surface it acts on?
A
Pressure = Thrust × Area
B
Pressure = Thrust ÷ Area
C
Pressure = Area ÷ Thrust
D
Pressure = Thrust + Area
19. The amount of solute dissolved in a particular solvent is defined in terms of:
A
viscosity
B
fluidity
C
surface tension
D
concentration
20. Food web consists of different types of _________.
A
food chains
B
ecosystems
C
trophic levels
D
foods
21. An object has a mass of 11 kg and is placed at a height above the ground. If its potential energy is 440 J and g = 10 m/s 2 , what is the height?
A
2 m
B
4 m
C
48,400 m
D
8 m
22. Which of the following situations clearly illustrates Newton’s third law, where action and reaction forces act on two different objects and are equal and opposite?
A
A car accelerating due to engine power.
B
A sailor pushes the boat backward while jumping forward, and the boat pushes him forward.
C
A book kept on a table remains at rest.
D
A stone resting on the ground.
23. What happens to the sound when the source vibrates faster?
A
The pitch stays the same, but frequency decreases.
B
The frequency and pitch become lower.
C
The frequency and pitch become higher.
D
The sound stops producing compressions and rarefactions.
24. The absolute refractive index of a material is 4/3. If the speed of light in air is 3 x 10 8 m/s, then what will be the speed of light in this medium?
A
3 x 108 m/s
B
1.33 x 108 m/s
C
4 x 108 m/s
D
2.25 x 108 m/s
25. Rahul covers a distance of 225 km in 15 hours. How many hours will he take to cover 40% less distance if he drives 20% faster than his original speed? 3164
A
7.5
B
8
C
7
D
8.5
26. If P : 17 :: 42 : 6, then find the value of P. 4875
A
122
B
119
C
116
D
118
27. X, Y and Z together can complete a piece of work in 8 days, while X alone can complete it in 24 days and Y alone can complete it in 36 days. Find in how many days Z alone can complete the work?
A
18 days
B
28 days
C
48 days
D
12 days
28. In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 66°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 35°. What is the measure of ∠ AEB?
A
66°
B
65°
C
59°
D
47°
29. The mode of the observations 22, 21, 22, 20, 33, 34, 22, 29, 29, 31, 23, 23, 28, 32, 22, 26 and 27 is:
A
33
B
22
C
20
D
21
30. Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4,000 at 6% per annum rate of interest for the period from 22 February 2024 to 23 April 2024. 16
A
39
B
41
C
40
D
38
31. The volume of a sphere is numerically equal to its surface area. Find its radius (in units).
A
6
B
5
C
3
D
4
32. In a town with 75,000 voters, 95% cast their votes, all of which were valid. There were three candidates: A, B, and C. Candidate A received 40% of the valid votes, while candidate B received 12% fewer votes than A. What percentage of the valid votes did candidate C receive?
A
48%
B
15.2%
C
52%
D
24.8%
33. A computer printed 1,76,400 lines in a given day. If the printer was in operation for 6 hours during the day, how many lines did it print per minute?
A
490
B
450
C
460
D
420
34. The average of first 6 odd natural numbers, is:
A
6.5
B
5.5
C
6
D
7
35. The value of the expression is _____.
A
1
B
0.1
C
100
D
10
36.
A
18.67%
B
16.67%
C
15.67%
D
14.67%
37. Find the effective price percentage of the marked price after three consecutive discounts of 11%, 18% and 20% (rounded off to two decimal places).
A
62.14%
B
61.4%
C
58.38%
D
58.88%
38. A person saves 10% of his income. If his expenditure is ₹360, then his income (in ₹) is:
A
440
B
36
C
400
D
324
39. A vertical stick 15 m long casts a shadow 5 m long on the ground. At the same time, a tower casts a shadow of 46.5 m long on the ground. The height of the tower is:
A
141.5 m
B
139.5 m
C
135.5 m
D
137.5 m
40. During the festive season, one large laddoo having radius 32 cm is made as prashad. After pooja, it is decided to make small laddoos from one large laddoo so as to distribute to the devotees. How many laddoos of radius 2 cm can be made?
A
3964
B
3896
C
4132
D
4096
41. Two trains are running in opposite directions at the same speed. If the length of each train is 444 m and they cross each other in 37 seconds, then what is the speed of each train?
A
10 m/s
B
9 m/s
C
8 m/s
D
12 m/s
42. The difference between the present ages of two sisters is 3 years. After 2 years, the elder sister will be twice as old as the younger sister was 2 years ago. Find the sum of their ages after 8 years from now.
A
37 years
B
39 years
C
31 years
D
33 years
43. If 4 lines of a print, in a column of a book, contain 36 words, how many words will a column of 50 lines contain?
A
446
B
450
C
454
D
460
44. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 3, 9 and 18 days, respectively. How long (in days) will they take to do twice the same work, working together?
A
8
B
12
C
4
D
5
45. The ratio of three numbers is 12 : 21 : 5. If 50 percent of the first number is 78, then what would be 50 percent of the absolute difference of third and second number? 5000
A
105
B
104
C
102
D
103
46. A dealer marks his goods at 25% above the cost price and allows a discount of 28% on the marked price. What is his gain or loss percentage?
A
7% gain
B
11% loss
C
10% loss
D
8% loss
47. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All bags are shoes. All bags are caps. All bags are laptops. Conclusions: (I): All shoes are laptops. (II): Some laptops are caps.
A
Only conclusion (I) follows
B
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
D
Only conclusion (II) follows
48. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? CYB 48 DZC 53 EAD 58 FBE 63 ?
A
GCF 68
B
GBE 67
C
GHJ 67
D
GDE 68
49. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 12 C 52 A 13 B 7 D 31 = ?
A
7
B
8
C
9
D
5
50. JTUB is related to HRSZ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, MXNP is related to KVLN. To which of the given options is LRYH related, following the same logic?
A
KQXG
B
JPWF
C
IOVE
D
JPXF
51. In a certain code language, ‘AUTO’ is coded as ‘2683’ and ‘TOUR’ is coded as ‘8136’. What is the code for ‘R’ in that language?
A
1
B
3
C
6
D
8
52. Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 4 8 @ 3 € 8 & 6 * 6 © 6 $ £ & 5 7 $ $ # 8 $ (Right) How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A
5
B
8
C
6
D
7
53. Each of the digits in the number 21786539 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the original number?
A
Three
B
None
C
One
D
Two
54. Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. PSQ−MPN GJH−DGE
A
TWU−PTQ
B
TWU−QTR
C
TVS−QTR
D
TVS−PSQ
55. Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some Hydrogens are Oxygens. All Oxygens are Nitrogens. All Nitrogens are Carbons. Conclusion I: All Oxygens are Carbons. Conclusion II: Some Nitrogens are Hydrogens.
A
Only Conclusion II follows
B
Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
C
Both Conclusions I and II follow
D
Only Conclusion I follows
56. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? (84 A 12) B 5 C 13 B 2 D 11 B 5 C 28 = ?
A
49
B
54
C
34
D
27
57. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (5, 14, 25) (4, 13, 24)
A
(10, 31, 42)
B
(9, 18, 23)
C
(8, 17, 6)
D
(6, 15, 26)
58. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 6 8 ? 18 26 36 1107
A
14
B
11
C
13
D
12
59. Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? KDG, MFI, OHK, QJM, ?
A
SKO
B
SKP
C
SLO
D
SLP
60. In a certain code language, ‘go there now’ is coded as ‘lb gt de’ and ‘go to school’ is coded as ‘kj ft de’. How is ‘go’ coded in the given language? (All codes are two-letter codes)
A
de
B
kj
C
lf
D
gt
61. All 54 people are standing in a row facing north. Mr. Akte is 8 th from the right end while Mr. Memi is 21 st from the left end. How many people are there between Mr. Akte and Mr. Memi?
A
24
B
25
C
26
D
23
62. Refer to the given number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 4 2 1 5 7 9 8 5 3 6 2 1 5 7 3 7 8 4 3 6 9 7 4 5 2 4 1 (Right) How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
A
Three
B
One
C
Two
D
More than three
63. Kartik starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards east. He then takes a right turn, drives 5 km, turns right and drives 11 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 12 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
7 km to the south
B
7 km to the north
C
6 km to the north
D
6 km to the south
64. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
MK−GE
B
SQ−MK
C
GE−ZA
D
CA−WU
65. Five people, A, B, C, D and E, are sitting in a row, facing towards the north. Only two people are sitting between A and D. B is sitting at the third position from the extreme left of the row. B is sitting to the immediate right of A. B is sitting to the immediate left of E. Exactly how many people are sitting between E and A?
A
Three
B
Two
C
None
D
One
66. Vikas starts from Point Y and drives 81 km towards the south. He then takes a right and drives 77 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 27 km. He takes a right turn, drives 35 km. He then turns right, drives 39 km, turns left and drives 42 km to stop at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
A
97 km towards the south
B
93 km towards the north
C
94 km towards the south
D
89 km towards the north
67. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 17, 22, 32, 47, 67, ?
A
92
B
93
C
94
D
91
68. All 46 people are standing in a row facing north. Z is 12 th from the right end while G is 9 th from the left end. How many people are there between Z and G?
A
25
B
21
C
24
D
23
69. Refer to the following letter series and answer the question. (Counting to be done from left to right only.) (Left) D M X A G N R L W O T P Y E F Q K Z J V U H (Right) How many such consonants are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a vowel?
A
More than three
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
70. In a certain code language, P + Q means ‘P is the husband of Q’, P # Q means ‘P is the brother of Q’, P & Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’ and P % Q means ‘P is the sister of Q’. How is F related to E if ‘F # N + O & V % E’?
A
Sister's husband
B
Father's sister
C
Father's brother
D
Sister's son
71. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 654 842 684 714 385 (Right) (Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) (NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.) If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order, then the position of how many numbers will remain unchanged?
A
Two
B
One
C
Four
D
Three
72. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 1 5 11 19 ? 41
A
29
B
30
C
27
D
28
73. YEVA is related to JPGL in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, QWNS is related to BHYD. To which of the given options is XDUZ related, following the same logic?
A
FIKO
B
IOFJ
C
IOFK
D
FOKI
74. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. D sits third to the right of C. A sits second to the left of C. E sits second to the right of F. B sits to the immediate right of E. How many people sit between A and F, when counted from the left of A?
A
One
B
Four
C
None
D
Two
75. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
CFK
B
YBG
C
JMQ
D
ILQ
76. Seven friends, L, M, N, O, Q, R and S, are sitting in a straight line facing north. No one sits to the right of S. S sits immediately to the right of Q. Only three people sit between S and N. R sits third to the left of M. O sits to the immediate right of M. How many people sit between L and Q?
A
Two
B
Zero
C
One
D
Three
77. Which milestone did Tata Lockheed Martin Aerostructures (TLMAL), a joint venture of Tata Advanced Systems (TASL) and Lockheed Martin achieve in India’s defence manufacturing in December 2025?
A
Delivery of 100th C-130J tail assembly
B
Delivery of 300th C-130J tail assembly
C
Delivery of 250th C-130J tail assembly
D
Delivery of 200th C-130J tail assembly
78. Where were the Special Olympics World Winter Games 2025 held?
A
Iceland
B
Italy
C
Canada
D
China
79. What was the theme of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)’s 21 st Formation Day, observed on 26 September 2025?
A
Volunteerism in Disaster Management
B
Technology for Risk Reduction – For a Safer Nation
C
Empowering Communities for Disaster Risk Reduction Through Awareness
D
Stopping Impact of Disaster Incidents in the Himalayan Region
80. As of July 2025, how many Indian cricketers have been nominated for a Laureus World Sports Award, including Rishabh Pant?
A
Three
B
One
C
Four
D
Two
81. 'Why the Constitution Matters' is a book written by ___________________.
A
Arif Khan
B
Bibek Debroy
C
D.Y. Chandrachud
D
Natwar Singh
82. In which track event did Animesh Kujur break his own national record?
A
200 m
B
400 m
C
800 m
D
100 m
83. Which of the following villages in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand was devastated by a flash flood caused by a cloudburst on 5 August 2025?
A
Pangot
B
Bhowali
C
Kanatal
D
Dharali
84. In October 2025, what was the RBI Monetary Policy Committee' s decision on the policy repo rate and stance?
A
Cut to 5.25% and shifted to 'accommodative' stance
B
Hiked to 5.75% and turned 'hawkish' stance
C
Held at 5.90% with an 'accommodative' stance
D
Held at 5.50% and maintained a 'neutral' stance
85. Which summit involving regional leaders from East and Southeast Asia was held in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia, on 26–27 May 2025?
A
Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation Summit
B
East Asia Summit
C
Indo-Pacific Strategic Forum
D
ASEAN-China Summit
86. Where will India’s first electronic waste (e‑waste) eco‑park be established by the Delhi government as a model for sustainable urban development?
A
Dwarka
B
Anand Vihar
C
Holambi Kalan
D
Rohini
87. What type of weapon is DRDO planning to test under the DURGA-2 project?
A
Hypersonic Missile
B
Laser Weapon
C
Plasma Gun
D
Biological Agent
88. What action did the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) take on 22 August 2025 regarding social-media financial schemes?
A
Grant registration to finance influencers
B
Ban all financial content on social media
C
Create a retail investor compensation fund
D
Issue advisory against FPI-linked schemes
89. In September 2025, which female cheetah was released in Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary to strengthen breeding efforts?
A
Dheera
B
Sasha
C
Aasha
D
Namib
90. The Fit India Movement's 'Sundays on Cycle' event, aimed at promoting a healthy lifestyle, was held in February 2025. At which iconic Mumbai landmark did it take place?
A
Gateway of India
B
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus
C
Marine Drive
D
Bandra-Worli Sea Link
91. The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) flight-tested the Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS) in August 2025. Which of the following DRDO laboratories developed the high-power laser-based Directed Energy Weapon (DEW) for the Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS)?
A
Centre for High Energy Systems and Sciences
B
Defence Research and Development Laboratory
C
Defence Research and Development Establishment
D
Research Centre Imarat
92. According to the World Bank's Poverty and Equity Brief Report 2025, India’s extreme poverty rate fell from 16.2% (in 2011-12) to what percentage in 2022-23?
A
2.8%
B
2.3%
C
3.2%
D
1.8%
93. On 11 March 2025, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced a corpus of how much for a contingency fund in Manipur during the discussion on the ‘Manipur Appropriation Bill, 2025’ and ‘The Manipur Appropriation (Vote on Account) Bill, 2025’ in the Lok Sabha?
A
₹750 crore
B
₹600 crore
C
₹400 crore
D
₹500 crore
94. Which among the following states was ranked first in the NITI Aayog’s Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025 for the financial year 2022-23?
A
Karnataka
B
Gujarat
C
Maharashtra
D
Odisha
95. Which organisation confirmed strong economic growth in India’s industrial and services sectors in May 2025, despite unemployment challenges?
A
Ministry of Finance
B
World Bank
C
NITI Aayog
D
Reserve Bank of India
96. In June 2025, which of the following organizations published the Global Economic Prospects (GEP) report, a flagship publication providing analysis of global economic trends, forecasts, and risks?
A
World Economic Forum
B
World Bank Group
C
Asian Development Bank
D
International Monetary Fund "
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