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Group D — Test 78
00:00
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01. The point on the principal axis where rays parallel to the principal axis converge (or appear to diverge) after reflection from a mirror is called which of the following?
A
Centre of curvature
B
Principal focus
C
Aperture
D
Pole
02. The emergence of a new plant from a seed under favourable environmental conditions is termed as ________.
A
pollination
B
germination
C
photosynthesis
D
fertilisation
03. Which term describes the closeness of particles in solids?
A
Inter-particle space
B
Rigidity
C
Density
D
Compressibility
04. Which of the following is usually connected in series in a domestic circuit?
A
Fan
B
Electric bulb
C
All appliances
D
Main fuse
05. How does the weight of an object on the Moon compare to its weight on Earth?
A
It is six times of its weight on Earth.
B
It is the same as that on Earth.
C
It is one-third of its weight on Earth.
D
It is one-sixth of its weight on Earth.
06. A farmer stores grains from his crop yield in a damp and warm room. After a few weeks, the grains get spoiled and their quantity reduces. What is the most likely reason for this?
A
Poor irrigation before harvesting
B
Improper storage conditions
C
Grains were eaten by birds and insects
D
Grains got washed away with water
07. What is the primary reason that the testes are located outside the abdominal cavity in the scrotum?
A
To facilitate easier hormone secretion
B
To reduce the risk of infection
C
To allow proper mixing of sperm and urine
D
To facilitate sperm formation as it requires a lower temperature than body temperature
08. Match the Following Substances and Their Ions. Column A (Substance) Column B (Ions Produced)
A
A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2
B
A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3
C
A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1
D
A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4
09. Which of the following is the smallest alkane that can form a stable ring?
A
Cyclopropane
B
Propane
C
Ethane
D
Methane
10. Why do we continue to breathe even when we are sitting or sleeping?
A
To let digestion go on
B
To give rest to the heart
C
To supply oxygen for life processes
D
To make breathing movements
11. Unsaturated carbons are _______ than the saturated carbon compounds.
A
More saturated
B
More reactive
C
Less reactive
D
Equally reactive
12. What will be the potential energy of a block of mass 30 kg kept at a height of 20 m? (Take the value of g = 10 m/s 2 )
A
60 J
B
6 J
C
6000 J
D
600 J
13. If the distance covered is halved and time remains the same, the linear velocity becomes _________.
A
Same
B
Half
C
Zero
D
Double
14. Which of the following is a part of the central nervous system of our body?
A
Pancreas
B
Stomach
C
Spinal cord
D
Liver
15. When an object is placed beyond the centre of curvature (C) of a concave mirror, the image formed is:
A
real, erect and same size as object
B
virtual, inverted and larger than the object
C
virtual, erect and larger than the object
D
real, inverted and smaller than the object
16. Due to the continous random movement of the gas particles, the particles collide with the walls of the container. The pressure exerted by the gas is equal to the:
A
force exerted by the gas particles on the walls of the container
B
force exerted by the gas particles per unit area on the walls of the container
C
force exerted by the gas particles per unit volume of the container
D
force exerted by the gas particles per unit area of the bottom of the container
17. Which of the following is an example of an object in uniform circular motion?
A
A train moving on a straight track at varying speeds
B
A car moving on a crowded street
C
A person jogging in a park
D
A satellite orbiting Earth at a constant speed
18. What is/are the general product(s) of the reaction between a non-metallic oxide and a base?
A
Water only
B
Salt and water
C
Gas and water
D
Salt and hydrogen
19. What type of gas is released when ethanol reacts with sodium?
A
Hydrogen
B
Carbon dioxide
C
Oxygen
D
Methane
20. How much current will flow through a resistor of 20 Ω when a potential difference of 40 V is applied across it?
A
1/2 A
B
2 A
C
5 A
D
1/5 A
21. Why is practicing safe sex important for reproductive health?
A
It ensures hormonal balance in the body
B
It guarantees pregnancy
C
It increases fertility
D
It prevents sexually transmitted diseases like HIV-AIDS
22. In multicellular organisms like humans, digestion occurs in:
A
food vacuoles
B
nucleus
C
specialised digestive organs
D
entire cell surface
23. Why do we feel cool when sweat evaporates from our skin?
A
Sweat absorbs heat from our skin to evaporate.
B
Sweat turns into ice before evaporation.
C
Sweat releases heat during evaporation.
D
Sweat forms crystals that cool the skin.
24. What is the main structural component of the plant cell wall?
A
Cellulose
B
Collagen
C
Peptidoglycan
D
Chitin
25. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A
Sound can travel through vacuum.
B
Sound travels fastest in solids.
C
Sound travels slower in gases than in liquids.
D
Sound travels faster in water than in air.
26. If the number 2X73Y5 is divisible by 11, then find the value of (X−Y).
A
6
B
3
C
1
D
5
27. 3191
A
70
B
62.5
C
50
D
67.5
28. Find the greatest number that divides 1005, 244 and 1343, leaving the remainders 5, 4 and 3, respectively.
A
20
B
25
C
30
D
15
29. A retailer offers the given discount schemes for buyers on an article. Which of the following schemes will be least beneficial to the customer? i. A discount of 34% ii. A discount of 37% followed by a discount of 8% iii. Successive discounts of 7% and 27%
A
Both scheme ii and scheme iii
B
Scheme i
C
Scheme ii
D
Scheme iii
30. A person saves 50% of his income. If his expenditure is ₹360, then his income (in ₹) is:
A
720
B
800
C
760
D
180
31. The amount on a sum of ₹1,800 at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded annually, in 2 years will be:
A
₹2,178
B
₹2,506
C
₹3,118
D
₹2,820
32. If the mean of 25, 29, 25, 32, 24 and x is 26, then the median of the data is: 6544
A
29
B
25
C
24
D
27
33. The ratio of 38 hours to 2 days is equivalent to what?
A
21:27
B
22:27
C
12:19
D
19:24
34.
A
42.36%
B
50.48%
C
38.15%
D
56.25%
35. Poonam sold a book to Mohini at a loss of 5% and Mohini sold it to Rupashi at a profit of 8%. If Rupashi bought the book for ₹1,539, then what was the cost price (in ₹) of the book for Poonam?
A
1,650
B
1,600
C
1,550
D
1,500
36. P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 6 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern with water in 12 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same cistern with water? 1417
A
3
B
4
C
7
D
6
37. In an election, 70% of the total voters cast their votes. Out of these, 60% voted for candidate X and the remaining voted for candidate Y. If candidate Y received 8400 votes, calculate the total number of registered voters.
A
40,000
B
32,000
C
30,000
D
25,000
38. What is the mode of the following data? 55, 45, 44, 48, 42, 45, 52, 53, 42, 50, 54, 49, 52, 45, 47, 43, 45, 48
A
48
B
45
C
55
D
44
39. If the area of a square is 15.21 cm 2 , then the perimeter (in cm) of the square is:
A
13.8
B
12.4
C
16.5
D
15.6
40. A basket contains 96 fruits consisting of mangoes and oranges. If there are 48 more mangoes than oranges, how many mangoes are there?
A
72
B
96
C
88
D
64
41. A store is offering 'Buy 5, get 16 free' on household items. What is the net percentage discount (approximately) being offered by the store?
A
76.19%
B
78.42%
C
74.24%
D
74.52%
42. In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 65°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 30°. What is the measure of ∠ AEB?
A
56°
B
50°
C
55°
D
53°
43. A mother is 25 years older than her daughter. In 15 years, the mother will be twice as old as the daughter. Find the daughter's current age.
A
35 years
B
10 years
C
20 years
D
25 years
44.
A
338
B
335
C
336
D
334
45. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. B sits second to the left of D. F is an immediate neighbour of A. B sits to the immediate right of A. C sits second to the left of E. What is the position of C with respect to A?
A
Second to the left
B
Third to the left
C
Immediate right
D
Second to the right
46. If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 20 × 2 ÷ 2 − 3 + 7 = ?
A
5
B
9
C
11
D
14
47. Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. ELP : CJN IQW : GOU 6152
A
HWZ : FUX
B
BTS : AWP
C
NRT : FSE
D
BTD : VRY
48. In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the son of B’, A - B means ‘A is the brother of B’, A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’, and A & B means ‘A is the father of B’. How is K related to V if ‘K-T+RxZ&V’?
A
Son
B
Father
C
Brother
D
Husband
49. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 34 44 57 73 92 ?
A
118
B
116
C
112
D
114
50. In a certain code language, ‘nice large land’ is coded as ‘cd ak pi’, ‘land is fertile’ is coded as ‘rf pc ak’ and ‘cost is high’ is coded as ‘si ig pc’. How is ‘fertile’ coded in that language?
A
pc
B
rf
C
ak
D
cd
51. Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit numbers only). (Left) 3 6 8 9 1 5 7 3 2 4 6 1 9 7 8 2 5 3 9 6 1 4 2 7 (Right) How many unique even digits are there in the series?
A
Four
B
Two
C
None
D
Three
52. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All hammers are screwdrivers. No screwdrivers are wrenches. Some wrenches are pliers. Conclusions: (I): No hammers are wrenches. (II): No pliers are screwdrivers.
A
Both conclusions (I) and (II) are true
B
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) is true
C
Only conclusion (I) is true
D
Only conclusion (II) is true
53. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 57 67 82 102 127 ?
A
157
B
159
C
156
D
158
54. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? YVW 58 VST 69 SPQ 80 PMN 91 ?
A
MKJ 102
B
MRX 101
C
MIJ 101
D
MJK 102
55. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some chromium are gallium. No gallium are gold. All gold are steel. Conclusions: I: Some gold are gallium. II: Some gallium are steel. 6672
A
Only conclusion (I) follows
B
Only conclusion (II) follows
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
D
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
56. Tarun starts from Point A and drives 65 km towards east. He then takes a left turn, drives 42 km, turns left and drives 78 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 71 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 13 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
A
29 km to the north
B
28 km to the north
C
26 km to the south
D
27 km to the south
57. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
MQ - LP
B
LP - KO
C
OS - NS
D
IM - HL
58. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 96 + 15 ÷ 5 − 154 × 14 = ? 3192
A
32
B
29
C
34
D
30
59. Seven boxes D, E, F, U, V, W and X are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only U is kept above D. Only V is kept between D and F. No box is kept below E. Only three boxes are kept between D and W. How many boxes are kept between X and E?
A
Four
B
Two
C
Three
D
One
60. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. Only one person sits between E and A when counted from the left of A. B sits third to the right of
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
61. JPUG is related to OLXE in a certain way. In the same way, TMQK is related to YITI. To which of the following is NOLT related, following the same logic?
A
TJPQ
B
TJOQ
C
SKOR
D
SKPR
62. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 351 369 458 517 619 (Right) (Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) (NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.) What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the second digit of the lowest number?
A
6
B
4
C
5
D
7 Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting
63. to be done from left to right only. (Left) 4 © 7 # 3 $ 7 6 4 £ 8 $ 2 * £ & $ # % 1 * 2 (Right) How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A
0
B
1
C
2
D
3
64. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (25, 37, 53) (40, 52, 68)
A
(32, 44, 28)
B
(26, 38, 54)
C
(39, 27, 43)
D
(9, 21, 33)
65. Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. No one sits to the right of G. Only three people sit between G and D. Only two people sit between D and C. E sits third to the left of F. B sits to the immediate right of F. How many people sit to the right of C?
A
1
B
4
C
3
D
2
66. Seven boxes L, M, N, O, Q, R and S are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. M is kept second from the bottom. Only one box is kept between M and N. Only three boxes are kept between M and S where S is kept above M. L is kept immediately below S. Q is kept at one of the places above O. R is not kept immediately above or below M. How many boxes are kept below O? 8480
A
One
B
Two
C
Zero
D
Three
67. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). (Left) 2 4 5 7 1 9 3 6 8 4 7 2 5 9 3 1 8 6 2 4 7 9 (Right) How many unique numbers in the series are less than 5 (each number counted only once, regardless of repetitions)?
A
Two
B
Three
C
One
D
Four
68. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? FRU HTW JVY LXA ?
A
NCZ
B
NZC
C
NDS
D
NZS
69. In a certain code language, VERL is coded as 102 and GZQT is coded as 76. What is the code for BXNO in that language?
A
96
B
89
C
106
D
110
70. Building X is to the south of Building Y and Building Z is to the east of Building Y. In which direction Building X is located with respect to Building Z?
A
South-West
B
South-East
C
North-East
D
North-West
71. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
MJ−LI
B
OL−NK
C
HE−FF
D
XU−WT
72. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 9 B 3 D 56 A 4 C 6 = ?
A
19
B
15
C
27
D
24
73. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 5 8 14 26 ? 98
A
51
B
49
C
45
D
50
74. TM 13 is related to WR 16 in a certain way. In the same way, MF 18 is related to PK 21. To which of the given options is QJ 26 related, following the same logic?
A
UM 28
B
TM 28
C
TO 29
D
UP 29
75. In April 2024, the Indian Space Research Organisation's (ISRO) Chairman, S Somanath, made a declaration to achieve debris-free space missions by the year _____.
A
2030
B
2028
C
2032
D
2035
76. In November 2025, which of the following government bodies expressed serious concern over Delhi’s deteriorating air quality, stating that even wearing masks had become ineffective?
A
Ministry of Home Affairs
B
Supreme Court of India
C
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
D
Delhi High Court
77. for the first time in 2025 by a team of entomologists?
A
Silent Valley
B
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary
C
Ranipuram forest
D
Periyar Tiger Reserve
78. In January 2025, which of the following expanded its Sandbox Framework to support innovation in the insurance sector?
A
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
B
Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
C
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
D
Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA)
79. In which district of Arunachal Pradesh did the Union Sports Minister Mansukh Mandaviya inaugurate a new multi-purpose Khelo India Hall in May 2025?
A
Kamle District
B
Lower Subansiri District
C
East Siang District
D
Papum Pare District
80. Who was recently appointed as the Chairperson of the Athletics Federation of India (AFI) Athletes Commission in January 2025?
A
PT Usha
B
Anju Bobby George
C
Neeraj Chopra
D
Saurav Ganguly
81. Which Constitutional Articles did earlier Supreme Court judgements connect manual scavenging to, as a violation in February 2025?
A
Articles 12 and 20
B
Articles 17 and 21
C
Articles 15 and 16
D
Articles 22 and 32
82. 'Gyan Seepiyan: Pearls of Wisdom', launched at the Jaipur Literature Festival in January 2025, is written by which author?
A
Javed Akhtar
B
Sudha Murthy
C
Harsha Dehejia
D
Benoy K Behl
83. Which organization collaborated with CBSE to launch the National Automobile Olympiad, 2025?
A
Automotive Skills Development Council
B
National Skill Development Corporation
C
Skill India Mission
D
NITI Aayog
84. Which of the following is a drone-launched precision-guided missile successfully test- fired by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) at a test range in Andhra Pradesh in July 2025?
A
Agni-P
B
ULPGM-V3
C
Nirbhay-V3
D
Astra Mk-II
85. Which of the following organization’s main purpose is collective defence, meaning an attack on one member is considered an attack on all?
A
World Trade Organization (WTO)
B
North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
C
World Health Organization (WHO)
D
United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
86. Where in Andhra Pradesh was the Rajiv Sports Complex, developed by Greater Visakhapatnam Municipal Corporation (GVMC), inaugurated in June 2025?
A
Uttam Nagar
B
Gajuwaka
C
Kollam
D
Dwaraka Nagar
87. In March 2025, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change conducted a national-level workshop on the National Adaptation Plan on Climate Change at ___________.
A
Lucknow
B
New Delhi
C
Mumbai
D
Bengaluru
88. Who set a new world record in the men’s 89 kg weightlifting category by lifting 224 kg in the clean and jerk at the 2024 Olympics?
A
Akbar Djuraev
B
Li Fabin
C
Simon Martirosyan
D
Karlos Nasar
89. As per Union Budget 2025-26, under the new income tax regime, what is the tax-exempt income threshold?
A
₹13 lakh
B
₹10 lakh
C
₹12 lakh
D
₹15 lakh
90. Which first-time MP from Thane was named a Sansad Ratna Award recipient in 2025?
A
Arvind Sawant
B
Dr. Varsha Gaikwad
C
Naresh Mhaske
D
Rahul Shewale
91. Which Canadian province held the G7 Summit in June 2025?
A
Alberta
B
Ontario
C
British Columbia
D
Saskatchewan
92. Which institution’s researchers developed smart peptides for pH-responsive medical applications in June 2025?
A
BIT Mesra
B
BITS Pilani
C
IIT Guwahati
D
IIT Delhi
93. In November 2025, which key labour benefit was ensured for beedi and cigar workers under new labour reforms?
A
Labour Protection Scheme
B
Employment Safety Code
C
Worker Welfare Act
D
Minimum Wage Guarantee
94. In November 2025, the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) implemented Stage‑II of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) across Delhi‑NCR. Which air quality category and AQI range did this stage correspond to?
A
Very Poor (AQI 301–400)
B
Poor (AQI 201–300)
C
Severe (AQI 401–450)
D
Severe+ (AQI 451 and above) "
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