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Group D — Test 70
00:00
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01. Which of the following statements is true?
A
The magnetic field lines inside a solenoid are circular.
B
On increasing the number of turns per unit length in a solenoid, the strength of the magnetic field in the solenoid increases.
C
The magnetic field inside a solenoid carrying current does not depend on the strength of the current.
D
On increasing the resistance of the wire, the strength of the magnetic field in a solenoid increases.
02. Which of the following statements is correct about the definition of complex permanent tissues?
A
Complex permanent tissues are made up of different types of cells performing similar tasks.
B
Complex permanent tissues are made of simple permanent tissues.
C
Complex permanent tissues are made up of different types of cells performing different tasks.
D
Complex permanent tissues are made up of similar type of cells.
03. A small amount of copper oxide taken in a beaker and dilute hydrochloric acid is added to it slowly while stirring, results in:
A
formation of reddish-brown colour solution of copper chloride
B
formation of reddish-brown colour solution of cupric chloride
C
formation of reddish-brown colour solution of copper sulphate
D
formation of bluish-green colour solution of copper chloride
04. For a given wave, if the speed becomes three times and the wavelength becomes three times, the frequency ______.
A
becomes one-third
B
becomes three times
C
becomes nine times
D
remains the same
05. Which of the following is a key feature of offsprings produced through vegetative propagation?
A
They require fertilisation to develop.
B
They are genetically diverse from the parent plant.
C
They always grow slower than seed-grown plants.
D
They are genetically identical to the parent plant.
06. When applying the sign conventions for spherical lenses to measure object and image distances, where are all measurements taken from?
A
The optical centre of the lens
B
The pole of the lens
C
The principal focus
D
The centre of curvature
07. What is the IUPAC rule for writing element symbols?
A
Both letters always in uppercase form (in case of two letters)
B
Two lowercase letters always used (in case of two letters)
C
Symbols written in numeric codes
D
First letter uppercase, second lowercase (in case of two letters)
08. Momentum (p) is a vector quantity. That means, momentum has both __________.
A
mass and velocity
B
speed and time
C
magnitude and direction
D
force and acceleration
09. Which of these processes begins after pollen lands on the stigma of a flower?
A
It develops into a seed directly.
B
A pollen tube grows through the style to reach the ovary.
C
The leaves begin photosynthesis immediately.
D
The petals open wider.
10. Which of the following species is reduced in the given reaction?
A
Cu
B
H2O
C
H2
D
O
11. Which is the main transport system in animals?
A
Nervous system
B
Muscular system
C
Respiratory system
D
Circulatory system
12. In India, cows are classified under which scientific species name?
A
Bos bubalis
B
Bubalus bubalis
C
Bos indicus
D
Bos taurus
13. Which of the following is NOT an application of Archimedes’ Principle?
A
Submarine floating and diving
B
Determining the density of an irregular solid
C
Measuring electrical resistance of a wire
D
Calculating buoyant force on a body in fluid
14. If an object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, the image formed will be:
A
at infinity, virtual and magnified
B
between focus and pole, virtual and erect
C
at the focus, real and diminished
D
at the centre of curvature itself, real and of the same size
15. When is the work done by a force considered negative?
A
When there is no displacement
B
When the force acts in the same direction as displacement
C
When the force is zero
D
When the force acts opposite to the direction of displacement
16. Which of the following correctly matches a floral part with its primary biological function in reproduction?
A
Sepals – development of ovules
B
Stamens – production of pollen grains
C
Petals – production of female gametes
D
Pistil – attraction of pollinators
17. When is a neutral salt formed?
A
When acid reacts with metal
B
When strong acid reacts with strong base
C
When strong acid reacts with weak base
D
When weak acid reacts with strong base
18. Which method is used to purify metals like Zinc and Copper?
A
Roasting
B
Electrolytic refining
C
Smelting
D
Alloying
19. Which of the following represents non-uniform linear velocity?
A
A train starting from rest
B
A body moving in a straight line at fixed speed
C
A ball rolling at uniform rate
D
A car moving at constant speed
20. Which of the following methods will NOT help in the management of garbage and other wastes produced by humans?
A
Following 3R’s (Reduce, Reuse, Recycle)
B
Landfilling plastics in soil
C
Vermicomposting
D
Treating wastes before release
21. A science teacher asks students to measure the current through a bulb using an ammeter. What precaution must the students follow?
A
Connect the ammeter in parallel with the bulb
B
Connect the ammeter without a battery
C
Connect the ammeter with reversed polarity
D
Connect the ammeter in series with correct polarity
22. What does the Law of Conservation of Mass state?
A
Mass of products is always greater
B
Mass remains unchanged in reactions
C
Energy can be converted into mass
D
Mass of reactants is always lost Which of the following statements are correct for benzene?
23. Which of the following is a pure substance consisting of only one type of atom?
A
Sodium
B
Air
C
Water
D
Milk
24. Which of the following statements best describes autotrophic nutrition?
A
It requires digestion of complex substances outside the body.
B
It involves making food using carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight.
C
It involves direct absorption of organic compounds from other organisms.
D
It depends entirely on consuming other living organisms for food.
25. An agent sells a turbo cooker with a marked price of ₹6,370 at a discount of 50%. What is the selling price (in ₹) of the turbo cooker?
A
3,158
B
2,549
C
2,548
D
3,185
26. Sunita, Javed, and Rani invest ₹13,90,000, ₹4,70,000, and ₹15,40,000, respectively, to start a business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹4,50,500, then what is the share of Rani in the profit?
A
₹2,04,052
B
₹2,04,053
C
₹2,04,050
D
₹2,04,048
27. The mean and the mode of a set of data are 20 and 88.7, respectively. Find the median of the data, using the empirical formula.
A
43.1
B
42.5
C
44.5
D
42.9
28. Simplify: 86 − (− 16) × (− 8 − 20 − 18) ÷ [1 × {10 + (− 2) × (− 3)}]
A
31
B
42
C
46
D
40
29. If A6B59 is exactly divisible by 9, then find the least possible value of (A 2 +2B).
A
19
B
21
C
14
D
13
30. The sum of two numbers is 74 and their difference is 12. Find the product of the two numbers.
A
1233
B
1433
C
1533
D
1333
31. P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 15 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern with water in 40 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same cistern with water?
A
6
B
7
C
12
D
13
32. The ratio of the ages of a wife and husband is 6 : 7 at present. If the sum of their ages after 20 years from now is 92, then find their present ages (in years), respectively.
A
24, 28
B
42, 49
C
30, 42
D
18, 21
33. The distance between points A and B is 663 km. Amit travels from A to B at 131 km/hr and returns at 24 km/hr. Calculate his average speed for the entire journey (rounded off to two decimal places).
A
46.18 km/hr
B
40.57 km/hr
C
39.54 km/hr
D
43.79 km/hr
34. The ratio of three numbers is 12:14:4. If 25% of the first number is 18, then what would 30% of the difference between the third and second numbers be?
A
17
B
19
C
18
D
16
35. into 64 smaller spherical balls. During the recasting process, 20% of the total metal is lost as waste. If the total volume of the 64 smaller spheres after the loss is 10,752 cm³, determine the radius (rounded off to the nearest integer) of the original sphere. (Use π = 3.14)
A
16 cm
B
14 cm
C
15 cm
D
17 cm
36. The volume (in m 3 ) of a cube with edges of 31 m is:
A
29898
B
29791
C
29959
D
29595
37. The price of fuel decreases by 15%, 30% and 60% in three successive months, but increases by 60% in the fourth month. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the price of fuel in the fourth month as compared to its original price?
A
Increases by 66.82%
B
Increases by 58.55%
C
Decreases by 61.92%
D
Decreases by 67.07%
38. The amount on a sum of ₹5,200 at 20% per annum compound interest, compounded annually, in 2 years will be:
A
₹6,916
B
₹7,472
C
₹7,488
D
₹7,105
39. What is the mode of the following data? 53, 53, 40, 49, 50, 48, 53, 50, 41, 40, 53, 45, 40, 47, 43, 52, 51, 42, 51, 53
A
50
B
49
C
53
D
40
40. The monthly incomes of two friends Chetan and Vipul, are in the ratio 5 : 9, respectively, and each of them saves ₹51,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly expenditure is 1 : 3, find the monthly income of Chetan(in ₹).
A
85,000
B
1,19,000
C
84,000
D
86,000
41. Two pipes, F and M, can fill a cistern in 25 minutes and 30 minutes, respectively. If both pipes are opened together, after how many minutes should pipe F be closed so that the cistern is completely filled in 15 minutes?
A
12.5 min
B
10 min
C
15 min
D
12 min
42. The cost price of a dress is ₹1,600. The shopkeeper makes a profit of 20% on selling it. If he offers a discount of 25% at the time of sale, find the marked price (in ₹).
A
1,920
B
2,050
C
2,560
D
2,380
43. A tower stands vertically on the ground. From a point on the ground which is 29.6 m away from the foot of the tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is found to be 45°. Find the height of the tower.
A
27.6 m
B
29.6 m
C
23.6 m
D
25.6 m
44. A shopkeeper sells 10 identical watches for ₹10,500, which is the cost price of 8 watches. Find his loss percentage.
A
20%
B
30%
C
10%
D
40%
45. In a quadrilateral EFGH, ∠ E = 52° and ∠ F = 37°. The bisectors of ∠ G and ∠ H meet at X. What is the measure of ∠ HXG?
A
49°
B
44.5°
C
37°
D
48.5°
46. Two trains, Train A and Train B, are traveling towards each other on parallel tracks. Train A is 150 meters long and moves at a speed of 72 km/h. Train B is 100 meters long and moves at a speed of 54 km/h. How much time (rounded off to two decimal places) will it take for Train A to completely pass Train B?
A
9.14 seconds
B
7.14 seconds
C
10.14 seconds
D
6.14 seconds
47. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 58 ÷ 11 + 624 × 13 − 471 = ?
A
1011
B
1061
C
1022
D
1032
48. Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 9 8 9 2 6 3 9 2 7 5 5 6 9 2 9 6 8 9 1 2 9 1 6 7 9 1 8 (Right) How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
3
B
4
C
2
D
1 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming
49. that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All pans are cups. All cups are bottles. Some cups are mugs. Conclusions: (I): Some bottles are mugs. (II): Some pans are mugs.
A
Only conclusion (II) follows
B
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
C
Only conclusion (I) follows
D
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
50. Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. DBC−YWX KIJ−FDE
A
ROO−MKL
B
RPQ−MKL
C
RPQ−LKK
D
ROO−LJK
51. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 715, 906, 570, 853, 418 (Right) (Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) Note: All operations to be done from left to right. What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second digit of the lowest number?
A
7
B
8
C
6
D
13
52. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 45 ? 57 63 69 75
A
47
B
51
C
62
D
53
53. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (12, 15, 720) (14, 11, 616)
A
(13, 10, 510)
B
(16, 11, 704)
C
(12, 9, 434)
D
(18, 9, 548)
54. If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 18 + 4 − 6 ÷ 46 × 2 = ?
A
21
B
11
C
17
D
14
55. Five people, A, B, C, D and E, are sitting in a row, facing north. A sits at the extreme right end of the row. D sits to the immediate left of A. Only B sits between C and E. How many people sit between A and B?
A
3
B
2
C
1
D
0
56. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All viruses are fungi. Some viruses are bacteria. Conclusions: (I) Some fungi are bacteria. (II) No fungi is a virus.
A
Both follow
B
Only II follows
C
Only I follows
D
Neither follows
57. Seven friends D, E, F, U, V, W and X are sitting in a straight line facing the north. Only three people are seated to the left of D. Only E is seated to the right of W. Only three people are seated between W and X. V is seated at some place to the left of U but at some place to the right of F. How many people are seated between F and U? 11035
A
One
B
Four
C
Two
D
Three
58. Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given below. Both triads follow the same pattern. DL – IQ – NV FN – KS – PX
A
BJ – GO – LT
B
PL – RN – TP
C
UW – YZ – SU
D
RM – QT – PR
59. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 2 1 1 1.5 ? 7.5
A
2
B
2.5
C
3
D
4
60. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
OT - MS
B
MR - KP
C
GL - EJ
D
IN - GL
61. Seven boxes A, B, C, D, P, Q and R are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. D is kept immediately above Q. R is kept immediately above C. Only P is kept above A. Only two boxes are kept above D. R is not kept at third position from the bottom. How many boxes are kept between B and P?
A
Three
B
One
C
Two
D
Four
62. In a certain code language, ‘POKE’ is coded as ‘8469’ and ‘KIND’ is coded as ‘2387’. What is the code for ‘K’ in the given code language?
A
8
B
6
C
4
D
2
63. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 120 135 155 180 210 ?
A
245
B
233
C
240
D
230
64. In a certain code language, ‘ELMS’ is coded as ‘4892’ and ‘ALES’ is coded as ‘7428’.What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
A
4
B
7
C
8
D
2
65. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 9 1 5 1 9 8 6 6 9 9 4 1 6 7 8 3 7 2 1 3 5 3 5 1 6 2 8 (Right) How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
A
4
B
3
C
5
D
6
66. Town I is to the north of Town F. Town H is to the east of Town I. Town J is to the east of Town H. Town G is to the north of Town J. What is the position of Town F with respect to Town G?
A
East
B
Northeast
C
North
D
Southwest
67. A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. C sits fourth to the right of X. Only two people sit between Y and W when counted from the left of Y. D sits third to the left of B. A is an immediate neighbour of B and W. How many people between C and A when counted from the left of A?
A
Three
B
Two
C
Four
D
One
68. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
HLNR
B
SWYC
C
INOS
D
VZBF
69. Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 9 5 4 3 9 4 2 5 8 8 2 1 9 7 1 7 4 9 8 8 8 3 2 1 5 2 8 (Right) How many such even numbers are there (from left to right) each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number? 6624
A
4
B
3
C
5
D
6
70. Rihan starts from Point A and drives 24 km towards East. He then takes a right turn, drives 50 km, turns right and drives 51 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 63 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 27 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
A
17 km to the north
B
15 km to the north
C
11 km to the South
D
13 km to the South
71. In a certain code language, ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’, ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’, ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’, ‘A % B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ and ‘A # B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’. How is Q related to N if ‘N % E – C % R # Q’?
A
Son’s daughter
B
Father’s brother
C
Son’s wife
D
Husband’s father
72. Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. UIR : WDP FRO : HMM
A
GHJ : ICG
B
KIT : MCR
C
LJQ : NEN
D
CPP : EKN
73. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 45 − 54 × 6 + 12 ÷ 1 = ?
A
44
B
40
C
42
D
46
74. Seven boxes, D, E, F, U, V, W and X, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the same order. Only two boxes are kept below W. Only two boxes are kept between W and U. Only one box is kept between U and E. X is kept immediately above V. F is kept at some place below D. How many boxes are kept between D and X?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
75. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? REN VBR ZYV DVZ ?
A
GTE
B
GSC
C
HSD
D
IRC
76. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? XBF 84 IMQ 92 TXB 100 EIM 108 ?
A
PRU 115
B
PSW 115
C
PUW 116
D
PTX 116
77. In October 2025, the Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air (CREA) published the PM2.5 air quality assessment of Indian cities. What does PM2.5 refer to?
A
Carbon monoxide generated from incomplete combustion
B
Ground-level ozone produced during photochemical reactions
C
Fine particulate matter with a diameter of 2.5 micrometres or smaller
D
Sulphur dioxide emissions released from industrial units
78. Which government body introduced the FASTag annual pass?
A
Directorate of National Toll and Transit
B
National Highways Authority of India
C
Indian Roadways Development Council
D
Ministry of Rural Infrastructure and Bridges
79. In August 2025, which of the following African countries was officially declared free of sleeping sickness by the World Health Organization (WHO)?
A
Uganda
B
Nigeria
C
Ghana
D
Kenya
80. In June 2025, a London-bound Air India aircraft crashed shortly after taking off from which airport?
A
Chennai Airport
B
Ahmedabad Airport
C
Kolkata Airport
D
Delhi Airport
81. Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath launched which book on public etiquette in May 2025?
A
Rajal Neeti: Lok Vyavhaar
B
The Divine Kumbh
C
Sanghatil Manavi Vyavasthapan
D
Rajal Neeti: Time Management
82. Which landmark treaty, aimed at protecting the high seas, achieved its final ratification push during the UN Ocean Conference in June 2025?
A
Paris Agreement on climate change
B
Convention on Wetlands (Ramsar Convention)
C
Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement
D
United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
83. Recently, who has taken over as president of industry body ASSOCHAM for 2024-25?
A
Suresh Nayar
B
Sanjay Nayar
C
Pankaj Nayar
D
Akhilesh Nayar
84. In June 2025, Rajkishore Parhi was chosen for the Bal Sahitya Puraskar for poetry collection, ‘Kete Phula Phutichhi', in which language?
A
Tamil
B
Bhojpuri
C
Telegu
D
Odia
85. The Indian Armed Forces contingent participating in the multilateral joint military exercise ZAPAD 2025 is being led by which regiment of the Indian Army?
A
Rajput Regiment
B
Sikh Regiment
C
Kumaon Regiment
D
Gorkha Regiment
86. Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary reopened for the 2025–26 tourist season in which Indian state?
A
Meghalaya
B
Odisha
C
Assam
D
West Bengal
87. In which event did Suruchi Singh win a gold medal at the ISSF World Cup, 2025, in Munich?
A
Women’s 10m air pistol
B
Women’s 25m pistol
C
Women’s 50m rifle
D
Women’s trap shooting
88. What is the name of the new regulatory body formed by the Reserve Bank of India in May 2025 to supervise India’s payment systems?
A
Payments Governance Authority
B
National Payments Council
C
Payments Regulatory Board
D
Unified Financial Authority
89. What rank did Neeraj Chopra achieve during the Doha Diamond League competition of 2025?
A
Fourth
B
First
C
Second
D
Third
90. What is the purpose of introducing Sugar Boards in CBSE schools, as reported in May 2025?
A
To educate about sugar risks
B
To encourage sports activities
C
To teach hygiene practices
D
To promote physical education
91. In July 2025, which of the following firms entered into a binding agreement to form a 50:50 domestic reinsurance joint venture to serve the insurance market in India?
A
Allianz with Jio Financial Services
B
Swiss Re with Axis Bank
C
Munich Re with Paytm
D
Lloyd’s with PayU
92. What was the theme of the 28 th National Conference on e-Governance scheduled for 22 and 23 September 2025 in Visakhapatnam?
A
AI in Governance: Future Pathways
B
e-Governance for Sustainable Development
C
Digital India: Inclusive Growth
D
Viksit Bharat: Civil Service and Digital Transformation
93. In 2025, who broke the women's mile world record with a time of 4:06.42 at Nike’s Breaking event in Paris?
A
Sifan Hassan
B
Faith Kipyegon
C
Laura Muir
D
Genzebe Dibaba
94. At the 23 rd National Para Athletics Championships 2025 in Chennai's Nehru Stadium, which state claimed the top position in the combined men's and women's team standings?
A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Maharashtra
D
Haryana
95. Which of the following initiatives was launched by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs in 2025 to improve the implementation of tribal welfare schemes?
A
Janjatiya Jyoti Abhiyan
B
Adi Karmyogi
C
Van Dhan 2.0
D
Tribal Pragati Mission
96. In September 2025, Justice Shree Chandrashekhar took oath as the Chief Justice of which High Court, following his appointment by the Government of India?
A
Rajasthan High Court
B
Delhi High Court
C
Calcutta High Court
D
Bombay High Court "
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