Group D — Test 69

01. What is the meaning of the phrase “the DNA copies generated will be similar, but may not be identical”?

02. Which of the following is NOT an example of a colloidal solution?

03. Which of the following situations represents balanced force?

04. What is the main function of epithelial tissue in animals?

05. Which of the following principles helps reduce pressure on the environment and promotes sustainable living?

06. A ball is released from rest at the top of an inclined smooth plane of length 5 cm. After reaching the bottom it travels horizontally on a smooth surface. How much distance will it travel horizontally? (Neglect the frictional forces as both the plane and surface are smooth)

07. Which of the following statements is/are true about the loudness and softness of a sound wave? (i) A loud sound has less amplitude as compared to a soft sound. (ii) A loud sound has more energy associated with it as compared to a soft sound. (iii) The loudness of a sound wave is the measure of the response of the ear to the sound.

08. Which of the following statements best explains why dry HCl gas does NOT change the colour of dry litmus paper, but aqueous HCl does?

09. In a substitution reaction involving an alkane, what happens to the hydrogen atoms of the alkane molecule?

10. The doctor feels our heartbeats with the help of an instrument called _______.

11. What is the primary purpose of anodising aluminium?

12. Which part of the human brain controls thinking and learning abilities of a person?

13. Which of the following statements correctly compares vacuoles in plant and animal cells?

14. Which of the following types of reproduction ensures that offspring inherit features from both parents in animals?

15. In humans, which parent determines the sex of the child?

16. Which of the following statement(s) is /are true regarding the work done by a constant force acting on a body? (i) The work done by the force can never be zero. (ii) If the direction of the force and displacement of the body is same, the work done will be positive. (iii) The S.I. unit of work done is joule.

17. If an electric heater consumes 1000 W of power, how much electrical energy does it use in 1 hour?

18. What happens to the gravitational force between two objects, if the distance between them is doubled and everything else remains the same?

19. Which of the following statements is correct about the size of atoms?

20. Covalent bonds are formed by the:

21. An image is formed at a distance of 30 cm from a convex mirror when the object is placed 40 cm from the mirror. The magnification produced by the mirror will be _______.

22. When a parallel beam of light passes through a convex lens, after refraction it:

23. Which of the following symbols represents a rheostat?

24. Which of the following is NOT a property associated with compounds?

25. Which of the following statements are correct in relation to the extraction of metals? The metals which lie high in the reactivity series are extracted by the electrolysis of molten ore. The metals of medium reactivity series exist as sulphides and carbonates in nature. It is easier to extract a metal from its sulphide in comparison to oxides.

26. If 8 solid spherical balls, each of radius 10 cm, are melted and recast into a single spherical ball, then what is the radius of the new ball so formed?

27. In an election between two candidates, Dinesh received 46.5% of the total votes and lost to Rizwan by a margin of 3150 votes. If all votes cast were valid, how many votes did Rizwan secure?

28. A fruit seller has 24 kg apples worth ₹3,600. He sells 12 kg apples at a gain of 20% and the remaining at a loss of 10%. Find his gain or loss (in ₹).

29. If the third proportional to 50 and Z is 18, then what is the value of Z?

30. Find a single discount (approximately) equal to three consecutive discounts of 2%, 8% and 15%.

31. The sum of two numbers is 88 and their L.C.M. is 870. The two numbers are:

32. A total profit of ₹21,800 is to be distributed amongst A, B and C such that A : B = 4 : 15 and B : C = 9 : 3. The share (in ₹) of B in the profit is:

33. The sum of the present ages of two sisters is 67 years. Five years ago from now, the elder sister was twice as old as the younger one. Find the elder sister's current age.

34. In a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD, the sides are AB = 10 cm, BC = 14 cm, CD = 8 cm, and DA = 12 cm. Find the area of the quadrilateral.

35. Successive discounts of 9% and 6% are equivalent to a single discount of:

36. The sum of two numbers is 74 and their difference is 12. Find the ratio of the smaller number to the larger number.

37. P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 15 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern with water in 60 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same cistern with water?

38. A man walks 430 m in 10 minutes, 470 m in 11 minutes and 620 m in 17 minutes. Then, his average speed (in m/minutes) for the whole journey is:

39. The sides of a triangle are 35 cm, 44 cm and 75 cm. What is the length of its altitude corresponding to the side with the length of 44 cm?

40. In a race, an athlete covers a distance of 300 m in 100 sec in the first lap. He covers the second lap of the same length in 50 sec. What is the average speed (in m/sec) of the athlete?

41. The arithmetic mean of the observations 78, 66, 89, 55, 73, 45, 23, 46 and 29 is:

42. For 6 innings, a cricketer had an average of 90 runs. In the 7 th inning, he scored 157 runs. His average score increased by _______. (Round off the answer to the nearest whole number.)

43. The amount on a sum of ₹7,500 at 6% per annum compound interest, compounded annually, in 2 years will be:

44. The price of fuel decreases by 35%, 55% and 35% in three successive months, but increases by 65% in the fourth month. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the price of fuel in the fourth month as compared to its original price? (Round off the answer to two decimal places.)

45. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? LIM VSW FCG PMQ ?

46. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? YVW 58 VST 69 SPQ 80 PMN 91 ?

47. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. F is the immediate neighbour of both E and C. E sits second to the right of G. A is sitting to the immediate left of G. G is the immediate neighbour of both A and B. D sits to the immediate right of C. The position(s) of how many persons will remain unchanged if all persons are arranged in the English alphabetical order in clockwise direction, starting from A (including A)?

48. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 40 47 55 64 74 ?

49. In a certain code language, ‘ROUT’ is coded as ‘1625’ and ‘AUTO’ is coded as ‘1546’. What is the code for ‘A’ in that language?

50. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (4, 7, 784) (6, 3, 324)

51. Each of the digits in the number 1785643 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. What will be the sum of the digits which are third from the left and third from the right in the new number thus formed?

52. DQXG is related to YUUI in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, GLQC is related to BPNE. To which of the given options is TKWD related, following the same logic?

53. Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 1 3 1 4 1 5 1 6 1 7 1 8 1 8 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 6 6 6 4 4 4 3 3 (Right) How many such odd digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit? 15719

54. XBNO is related to UYKL in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, PAQJ is related to MXNG. To which of the given options is FWOM related, following the same logic?

55. Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement(s). Statements: No stump is a ball. Some balls are wickets. Conclusion: (I) No ball is a stump. (II) No wicket is a ball.

56. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

57. Town X is to the north of Town Y. Town Z is to the west of Town Y. Town W is to the east of Town X. Town Z is to the north of Town V. What is the position of Town W with respect to Town Z?

58. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 627 543 658 719 482 (Right) (Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) (NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.) What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is multiplied with the second digit of the lowest number?

59. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). (Left) 6 9 8 4 7 1 3 2 5 9 4 8 6 7 1 3 2 5 9 4 8 6 (Right) How many unique digits in the series are multiples of 4 (each digit counted only once, regardless of repetitions)? 5701

60. Arman starts from point A and drives 32 km towards the south. He then takes a left turn, drives 37 km, turns left and drives 35 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 38 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)

61. Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. C is seated second from the left end. F is third to the right of B. G is seated to the left of C and at one of the ends. Only two people sit between G and B. Only one person is seated between D and F. E is not a neighbour of F. Who is seated second from the right end?

62. In a certain code language, ‘please go on’ is coded as ‘js tk mj’ and ‘go there please’ is coded as ‘js yn tk’. How is ‘on’ coded in that language?

63. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 18 24 12 30 ? 36

64. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 7 4 1 2 4 9 7 5 3 6 1 5 2 7 4 5 8 3 9 6 5 7 3 9 1 4 2 (Right) How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?

65. In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the son of B’, A - B means ‘A is the brother of B’, A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’ and A & B means ‘A is the father of B’. How is T related to M if ‘T + O x R - N & M’?

66. Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. TUG : QYD NCA : KGX

67. If ‘P’ stands for ‘×’, ‘Q’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘R’ stands for ‘−’ and ‘S’ stands for ‘+’, what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? (20 Q 4) P 7 S 5 P 9 R (40 Q 8) P 4 = ?

68. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 8 B 2 D 15 C 25 A 5 = ?

69. Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit to the left of C. Only three people sit between C and G. B sits second to the right of C. Only two people sit between B and A. E sits at some place to the right of F but at some place to the left of D. How many people sit to the right of C?

70. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

71. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 2 3 ? 38 102 227

72. Vijaya ranked 7 th from the top and 13 th from the bottom in her class. How many students are there in the class?

73. All 30 students in a class are standing in a row, facing north. Meera is 10 th from the left end, while Arjun is 19 th from the right end. How many people stand between Meera and Arjun?

74. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All caps are hats. All caps are scarfs. Some scarfs are mufflers. Conclusions: (I) Some mufflers are caps. (II) Some scarfs are hats.

75. Who became the first athlete to throw beyond 75 m in the men’s discus event, setting a world record of 75.56 m in April 2025?

76. Who was named the Men’s Player of the Year at the All India Football Federation Awards 2025 in May 2025?

77. Which Indian city’s government conducted the first cloud seeding flight trial in October 2025 to combat severe air pollution?

78. At which summit did India’s NSA Ajit Doval push for a unified counter‑terrorism stance in June 2025?

79. Which of the following ministries announced the fourth phase of amalgamation of RRBs in April 2025 under the 'One State, One RRB' policy to enhance the operational efficiency of regional rural banks (RRBs)?

80. As per Human Development Index (HDI) 2025, what is the rank of India?

81. Who became the oldest man to reach the semi-finals of an ATP Masters 1000 event in 2025?

82. Which of the following states witnessed the swearing-in of a newly elected government led by the NDA coalition in November 2025?

83. Which of the following initiatives did the Maharashtra Government approve in September 2025 to generate employment in Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities and boost skilled job opportunities?

84. Which Indian actress was named National Ambassador for Cyber Safety by Ministry of Home Affairs in October 2024?

85. In May 2025, which of the following nodal agencies of the Union Government invited public comments on the Draft Framework of India’s Climate Finance Taxonomy?

86. When did Larsen & Toubro (L&T) launch the Indian Navy’s Second Multi-Purpose Vessel (MPV)?

87. Which para-archer achieved a historic milestone by becoming the first in their discipline to be honoured with the Padma Shri in 2025?

88. In July 2025, DRDO successfully conducted two consecutive successful flight tests of the Pralay missile at which of the following locations?

89. Which of the following cities were among the safest for women according to (National Annual Report & Index on Women’s Safety) NARI 2025?

90. Which key reform did the Economic Survey 2024-25 emphasise for long-term growth?

91. India observed World No Tobacco Day on which date in 2025?

92. At the Taiwan Athletics Open, which took place in Taipei on 7 and 8 June 2025, how many total medals did India win?

93. During COP30 held in November 2025, the term Conference of the Parties (COP) refers to the meeting of the Parties under which United Nations convention?

94. In March 2025, who inaugurated the two-day National Conference on ‘Environment – 2025’ in New Delhi?