Group D — Test 67

01. What is generally produced when a metal reacts with an acid?

02. Which of the following is a characteristic of a colloidal solution?

03. Which of the following leads to significant damage to the ozone layer in the atmosphere?

04. What happens to biodegradable substances when they are released in the environment?

05. The phenomenon in which different parts of the plant, like root, stem and leaves, develop into new plants under appropriate conditions is called _________.

06. When you shake a tree, fruits fall because of ________.

07. A straight conductor carrying current is placed parallel to a uniform magnetic field. The force on the conductor will be:

08. Which of the following is a chemical change?

09. The skin on the face is primarily made up of which epithelial tissue?

10. In electrolytic refining, the impure metal is used as which of the following?

11. Which of the following instruments is used to determine the purity of a milk sample?

12. Which statement best describes an olfactory indicator?

13. According to the right-hand thumb rule, if the thumb points in the direction of current, then the fingers show:

14. To get a virtual, erect and enlarged image using a spherical mirror, the object must be placed _____________.

15. Cells differ in shape and size according to the work they perform in living organisms. Which of the following correctly compares a cell’s shape with its function?

16. The main reason an echo is NOT heard clearly in a small room is:

17. What distinguishes rough ER (RER) from smooth ER (SER)?

18. Which property most definitively distinguishes a suspension from a colloid?

19. What is the purpose of enrichment of ore before extraction?

20. The newton (N) is the SI unit of force. Which of the following expresses one newton (N) in terms of the fundamental SI units (kilogram, metre and second)?

21. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm, such that an image is formed at a distance of X cm from the lens. What is the value of X?

22. What would you call the middle elongated part of the female reproductive part of a flower?

23. What is the gain in its potential energy? (Take g=10 m/s 2 )

24. Which of the following 'indicators' is used to test the nature of solutions besides litmus paper?

25. The process of seed dispersal helps in:

26. The marked price of a toy truck is ₹8,810, and its selling price is ₹6,250. Find the discount percentage. (Round off the answer to two decimal places.)

27. Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹4,000 at 6% per annum rate of interest for the period from 20 February 2024 to 21 April 2024.

28. If the radius of a sphere is 10 cm, then its surface area is:

29. The average of the first 13 even natural numbers is:

30. A mother's age is double her son's age at present. If the difference of their ages after 24 years from now is 20, then find their ages at present (in years), respectively.

31. The mode of the observations 26, 26, 22, 21, 31, 24, 21, 28, 28, 30, 33, 22, 25, 23 and 21 is: 4285

32. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 2, 15 and 10 days, respectively. How long (in days) will they take to do twice the same work, working together?

33.  

34. In a test, B got 50 marks while A got 80 marks, out of 85 maximum marks. What percentage of A's marks was B's marks?

35. A shopkeeper buys an article for ₹850, spends ₹200 on repairs and sells it for ₹1,200. What is his profit percentage (rounded off to two decimal places)?

36. If 5.12 × 50625 × 0.5488 = 2 a 3 b 5 c 7 d , then find the value of a + b + c + d.

37. A contractor agreed to complete a job in 74 days. He employed 21 men to work, but only one-fourth of the work was completed in 32 days. How many additional men must he employ to finish the remaining work within the stipulated time?

38. Rama made necklaces with either 24 beads, 36 beads or 40 beads, such that no bead was left over. What is the least number of beads Rama could have?

39. The sum of the first 19 prime numbers is:

40. ₹5,177 is divided among A, B and C in such a way that if ₹72, ₹21 and ₹24 be deducted from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 3 : 13 : 7. Find the difference between the original shares of B and C.

41. A girl goes to school at a speed of 45 km/h. She comes back with a speed of 36 km/h. Find her average speed for the whole journey.

42. In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 80°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 37°. What is the measure of ∠ AEB?

43. 11127  

44. If the fourth proportional to P, 22 and 8 is 11, then find the value of P.

45. A student secured 300 marks out of a maximum of x marks in a test. If the same percentage score were applied to a test of 400 marks, he would have scored 200 marks. What were the maximum marks of the original test?

46. A chair is marked at ₹4,000 and sold at ₹3,600 after a certain discount. If the shopkeeper still makes a profit of 20%, find the cost price of the chair.

47. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 94 – 115 × 5 + 14 ÷ 7 = ?

48. the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which conclusion/s logically follow/s from the given statements. Statements: Some sandals are crocs. All crocs are flipflops. Conclusion I: Some sandals are flipflops. Conclusion II: All flipflops are crocs.

49. Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. All numbers are single- digit numbers only. Counting to be done from left to right. (Left) 4 7 2 8 1 5 6 9 3 8 2 4 7 1 9 5 3 6 8 2 7 4 1 9 5 (Right) How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?

50. If ‘P’ stands for ‘×’, ‘Q’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘R’ stands for ‘−’ and ‘S’ stands for ‘+’, what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 17 P 4 R 65 Q 5 S (34 Q 2) P 10 S 6 P 3 = ?

51. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? END BRA YVX VZU ?

52. In a certain code language, ‘seek new hope’ is coded as ‘dp ml vy’ and ‘hope fuels dreams’ is coded as ‘gj sc dp’. How is ‘hope’ coded in the given language?

53. All 92 people are standing in a row facing north. Mr. Akte is 9 th from the left end while Mr. Memi is 27 th from the right end. How many people are there between Mr. Akte and Mr. Memi?

54. Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row, facing north. F sits to the immediate left of A. C sits third to the left of D. C is an immediate neighbour of A. B sits to the immediate left of E. How many people sit between E and C?

55. Six people, D, E, F, G, H and I, are sitting in a row, facing towards the north. H is sitting to the immediate right of F and to the immediate left of D. E is sitting to the right of F and three people are sitting in between them. G is sitting to the immediate left of E. I is sitting to the immediate right of E. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that DOES NOT belong to that group?

56. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

57. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 254 238 222 206 190 ?

58. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

59. Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. GJH−LOM HKI−MPN

60. Samyuktha starts from Point H and drives 8 km towards the east. She then takes a right turn, drives 7 km, turns right and drives 10 km. She then takes a right turn and drives 11 km. She takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should she drive in order to reach Point H again? (Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)

61. In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the father of B’, A – B means ‘A is the son of B’, A × B means ‘A is the mother of B’ and A ÷ B means ‘A is the brother of B’. How is X related to T if ‘X + Y – Z × W ÷ T’?

62. Refer to the given number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) 1 6 1 5 5 2 4 8 4 9 1 8 7 3 3 6 9 1 2 6 2 1 2 7 4 9 3 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?

63. In a certain code language, ‘TOUR’ is coded as ‘8571’ and ‘DOUT’ is coded as ‘5478’. What is the code for ‘D’ in that language?

64. done from left to right only. (Left) * © 2 1 £ 2 6 2 £ © @ % £ $ 4 $ $ $ @ $ 1 4 (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a symbol?

65. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All hearts are spades. All aces are spades. No spades are pens. Conclusions: (I): All aces are hearts. (II): No hearts are pens.

66. Nawang starts from Point A and drives 16 km towards south. He then takes a right turn, drives 13 km, turns right and drives 17 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 19 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 1 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degree turns only unless specified)

67. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Left) 7 4 1 2 4 9 8 5 3 6 1 5 4 6 5 4 8 3 9 6 5 2 3 9 1 4 2 (Right) If all the odd numbers are dropped from the series, which of the following will be sixth from the left?

68. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 25 32 41 52 65 ? 6663

69. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 412 414 418 424 432 ?

70. LNRO is related to QSWT in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, TVZW is related to YAEB. To which of the given options is EGKH related, following the same logic?

71. Kinjal ranked 21 st from the top and 12 th from the bottom in her class. How many students are there in her class?

72. What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 29 ÷ 13 + 545 × 5 − 317 = ?

73. Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? EQL 2 GMN 6 IIP 18 KER 54 ?

74. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (14, 30, 56) (20,36, 68)

75. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. JOYS - YJOS - SYOJ LAKE - KLAE - EKAL

76. Eight people – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. C sits to the immediate right of A. Only two people sit between C and D when counted from the right of D. Only three people sit between D and E when counted from the left of D. H sits to the immediate right of E. B is not an immediate neighbour of D. F sits second to the right of G. Who sits third to the right of F?

77. At which competition did Animesh Kujur set a new national record and win a bronze medal in the men’s 200 m event?

78. In August 2025, World Lion Day celebrations in Gujarat were held at which wildlife sanctuary, where a major conservation and eco-tourism initiative was also highlighted?

79. Which of the following is India’s first fully robotic telescope in Ladakh that captured images of a massive asteroid during its close pass by Earth in July 2024?

80. What significant step did the Karnataka High Court emphasise in November 2025 regarding child safety equipment?

81. Which collection by Banu Mushtaq, translated by Deepa Bhasthi, won the International Booker Prize, 2025?

82. Who has been awarded the first-ever EASD Diabetes Global Impact Prize in 2025?

83. Which of the following was launched by India in August 2025 to support countries of the Global South in meeting the Sustainable Development Goals?

84. Thiyam Suryamukhi Devi, honoured with the Padma Shri in 2025, is famous for which classical dance form?

85. Who became the fastest man in the world so far in 2025 in the 100 m race with a time of 9.86 s?

86. Who won the 2025 Australian Open Men's Singles title?

87. In March 2025, which summit was held in India to focus on climate solutions and partnerships?

88. ‘Deviants’, a multigenerational queer novel published in February 2025, is authored by:

89. Which of the following multilateral negotiations did India and the Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU) sign in August 2025 as a step towards a Free Trade Agreement (FTA)?

90. In November 2025, which Indian state rolled out the amended Bharat Net Scheme across its territory, aiming in part to support real-time monitoring in sensitive border zones affected by regional disputes?

91. In 2025, the Ministry of Defence unveiled a long-term roadmap emphasising future- generation technologies such as AI, hypersonic weapons, nuclear propulsion for warships, and next-generation combat systems. Which of the following is the name of this plan/roadmap?

92. How many runs did India’s women’s team score to set a national record in a One-Day International against Ireland in January 2025?

93. The Utkarsh Odisha – Make in Odisha Conclave, 2025, was held at ________.

94. Where was the Combined Operational Review and Evaluation (CORE) Programme organised by the Headquarters Integrated Defence Staff (HQ IDS) from 22 to 26 September 2025?

95. In December 2024, which of the following schemes was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Haryana to promote financial literacy and insurance awareness among women?

96. Which customer segment is affected by ICICI Bank’s raised minimum balance requirement?