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Group D — Test 66
00:00
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01. What is the energy absorbed during change of state at constant temperature called?
A
Specific heat
B
Latent heat
C
Thermal energy
D
Kinetic energy
02. Which of the following correctly describes the SI unit of electric power and the commercial unit of electrical energy, respectively?
A
Watt (W); Joule (J)
B
Watt (W); Kilowatt-hour (kWh)
C
Volt (V); Joule (J)
D
Kilowatt-hour (kWh); Watt (W)
03. Muscle cells show higher mitochondrial activity after exercise. The result indicates which of the following?
A
Mitochondria cause fatigue.
B
More energy is required during activity.
C
Cell division stops.
D
Cells are becoming larger.
04. Which of the following trophic levels is occupied by the tertiary consumers?
A
Third trophic level
B
Fourth trophic level
C
First trophic level
D
Second trophic level
05. Refer to the two statements given below and choose the correct option. Statement A: Acids react with all metals to form hydrogen gas. Statement B: Gold and platinum also react with acids to release hydrogen.
A
Both statements A and B are correct.
B
Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.
C
Both statements A and B are incorrect.
D
Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.
06. When an object is placed at the focus of a convex lens, the formation of image is ________________.
A
on the same side as the object
B
between F and 2F
C
at infinity
D
at the centre of curvature
07. When a more reactive metal is placed in the salt solution of a less reactive metal, it:
A
displaces the less reactive metal
B
gets reduced
C
does not react
D
gets oxidised
08. Which of the following cellular organelles performs the function of storage, modification and packaging of products in vesicles?
A
Ribosomes
B
Golgi Complex
C
Vacuoles
D
Chloroplast
09. A body of mass 'm' experiences a force 'F', producing an acceleration 'a'. If the same force acts on a body of mass '2m', the acceleration produced will be:
A
a
B
a/2
C
a/4
D
2a
10. What is the primary purpose of the process of nutrition in living organisms?
A
To obtain energy and raw materials from external sources
B
To regulate visible movement and reproduction
C
To form oxygen molecules required for photosynthesis
D
To produce carbon dioxide and other waste materials
11. If the length of a uniform metallic conductor is doubled, and simultaneously its area of cross-section is doubled, how does the resistance of the conductor change?
A
It remains the same as the original resistance.
B
It doubles the original resistance.
C
It decreases to one-half of the original resistance.
D
It becomes four times the original resistance.
12. Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of plants produced through vegetative propagation?
A
They flower and fruit earlier than seed-grown plants.
B
They show variation in characteristics among offspring.
C
They are genetically identical to the parent.
D
They do not require pollination.
13. What determines the atomic number of an element?
A
Number of electrons in all shells
B
Difference between mass and charge
C
Total number of protons in nucleus
D
Number of neutrons in an isotope
14. Hydrometers are tools used to measure the density of liquids. Which scientific principle are they based on?
A
Newton’s First Law
B
Universal law of Gravitation
C
Pascal’s Law
D
Archimedes’ Principle
15. Which cropping pattern involves growing two or more crops together on the same land at the same time, but in a defined row or spatial arrangement?
A
Monocropping
B
Mixed cropping
C
Intercropping
D
Crop rotation
16. Which quantity changes due to an unbalanced force?
A
Velocity
B
Mass
C
Time
D
Density
17. An object of mass 12 kg is located such that its potential energy relative to the ground is 480 J. Assuming g = 10 m s −2 , what is the height (h) of the object?
A
4 m
B
2 m
C
40 m
D
120 m
18. Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?
A
Sand and iron
B
Water and ice
C
Oil and water
D
Air
19. Which of the following best explains the importance of fertilisation in sexual reproduction?
A
It cleanses the reproductive tract
B
It allows the formation of an embryo
C
It helps the uterus for menstrual flow
D
It increases the number of eggs in females
20. What does the term 'formula unit mass' refer to?
A
Mass of a single proton in an atom
B
Sum of atomic masses of all atoms in the compound
C
Mass of one molecule of a covalent compound
D
Total mass of atoms in one mole of a compound
21. The principal focus of a convex lens is _______.
A
the point behind the lens where rays diverge
B
always at infinity
C
the point where parallel rays converge
D
the point where diverging rays meet
22. What happens to the egg if it is NOT fertilised?
A
It becomes an embryo.
B
It survives for a week.
C
It implants in the uterus.
D
It lives for about one day and then disintegrates.
23. Why is carbon able to form a large number of compounds?
A
It forms strong ionic bonds.
B
It is highly reactive.
C
It has high density.
D
It shows catenation and tetravalency.
24. A basic solution will have a pH:
A
That cannot be predicted
B
Greater than 7
C
Less than 7
D
Equal to 7
25. A sound wave has a wavelength of 0.5 m and frequency 680 Hz. The speed of sound is:
A
680 m/s
B
1360 m/s
C
170 m/s
D
340 m/s
26. In a quadrilateral QRST, ∠ Q = 96° and ∠ R = 43°. The bisectors of ∠ S and ∠ T meet at E. What is the measure of ∠ TES?
A
78°
B
69.5°
C
70.5°
D
56°
27. In a test, B got 50 marks while A got 75 marks, out of 85 maximum marks. What percentage of A's marks was B's marks? (Round off the answer to two decimal places.)
A
150.28%
B
85.79%
C
88.23%
D
66.67%
28. Find a single discount (approximately) equal to three consecutive discounts of 11%, 12% and 2%.
A
20.49%
B
23.25%
C
25.59%
D
23.97%
29. The mean and the mode of a set of data are 86.7 and 51.3, respectively. Find the median of the data, using the empirical formula.
A
76.2
B
75.8
C
74
D
74.9
30. The difference between the ages of Girish and Rohan is 10 years. 15 years ago, Girish was twice as old as Rohan. Find Girish's present age.
A
32 years
B
37 years
C
35 years
D
39 years
31. A train covers a distance of 270 km in 4.5 hours. What is the speed of the train?
A
70 km/h
B
65 km/h
C
55 km/h
D
60 km/h
32. If the fourth proportional to P, 15 and 20 is 1, then find the value of P.
A
300
B
298
C
297
D
302
33. conical vessel of radius 12 cm and height 16 cm. The size of the sphere is such that when it touches the sides of the cone, the sphere is just immersed into the cone. Find the ratio of the volume of water that has overflown to the volume of water left in the cone.
A
5 : 7
B
2 : 7
C
4 : 5
D
3 : 5
34. Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2,000 at 7% per annum rate of interest for the period from 11 February 2023 to 25 April 2023.
A
26
B
27
C
28
D
29
35. An agent sells a turbo cooker with a marked price of ₹6,370 at a discount of 60%. What is the selling price (in ₹) of the turbo cooker?
A
2,547
B
2,546
C
2,548
D
2,549
36. ₹10,511 is divided among X, Y, and Z in such a way that if ₹87, ₹42, and ₹12 be deducted from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 6 : 16 : 12. Find the difference between the Y’s and Z’s original shares.
A
₹1,320
B
₹1,120
C
₹1,250
D
₹1,370
37. Find the HCF of 44, 110 and 198.
A
22
B
44
C
11
D
33
38.
A
7
B
10
C
6
D
4
39. Raju has ₹50 more than Riya. Together they have ₹350. How much money does Raju have?
A
₹200
B
₹250
C
₹150
D
₹225
40. 102 men have provisions for 30 weeks. They are joined by 78 men. How long (in weeks) will the provisions last?
A
17
B
15
C
19
D
21
41. The price of fuel decreases by 50%, 40% and 20% in three successive months, but increases by 50% in the fourth month. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the price of fuel in the fourth month as compared to its original price?
A
Increases by 65%
B
Increases by 61%
C
Decreases by 62%
D
Decreases by 64%
42. 11132
A
48 minutes
B
55 minutes
C
51 minutes
D
61 minutes
43. The arithmetic mean of the observations 52, 40, 76, 99, 52, 27, 80, 27 and 24 is:
A
60
B
47
C
53
D
56
44. If an item is bought for ₹800 and sold for ₹740, what is the loss percentage?
A
7.5%
B
6.5%
C
9.5%
D
8.5%
45. One pipe can fill a tank in 6 minutes, while another pipe can empty the completely filled tank in 12 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how many minutes will it take to fill one-half of the tank?
A
13
B
7
C
6
D
12
46. Dayanand ranked 17 th from the top and 11 th from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in the class?
A
27
B
26
C
25
D
28
47. Anant starts from Point A and drives 32 km towards the south. He then takes a left turn, drives 34 km, turns left and drives 35 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 38 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
A
5 km to the west
B
4 km to the east
C
3 km to the east
D
6 km to the west
48. In a certain code language, "XANJ" is coded as "98" and "VLQG" is coded as "116". What is the code for "ZRHU" in that language?
A
139
B
146
C
130
D
141
49. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 191 181 182 172 173 163 ?
A
164
B
163
C
161
D
162
50. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (14, 28, 2) (13, 39, 3)
A
(11, 55, 6)
B
(17, 65, 5)
C
(15, 45, 3)
D
(16, 32, 3)
51. Prakash starts from Point A and drives 35 km towards the south. He then takes a right turn, drives 38 km, turns right and drives 41 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 54 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 6 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
A
18 km to the east
B
15 km to the west
C
16 km to the west
D
17 km to the east
52. Seven friends, L, M, N, O, Q, R and S, are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only four people sit to the right of O. Only three people sit between O and S. Only one person sits between S and L. R sits to the immediate left of M. N is not an immediate neighbour of S. How many people sit to the right of Q?
A
One
B
Four
C
Three
D
Two
53. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
USW
B
ECG
C
KJM
D
QOS
54. Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 7 2 6 9 7 6 5 7 7 8 8 3 6 3 6 8 3 2 5 5 2 3 1 4 6 1 8 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
5
B
6
C
4
D
3
55. If 3 is added to each even digit and 2 is added to each odd digit in the number 3267541, what will be the sum of the last two and first two digits in the new number thus formed?
A
35
B
28
C
40
D
20
56. In a certain code language, ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’, ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’, ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’ and ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the son of B’. How is V related to Y if ‘V + W × X – Z ÷ Y’?
A
Daughter's husband
B
Wife's brother
C
Father's father
D
Brother's son
57. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
WYA
B
GIK
C
FHJ
D
UXY
58. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 63 72 82 93 105 ?
A
116
B
118
C
120
D
114
59. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 17 ÷ 18 + 88 × 2 − 313 = ?
A
575
B
597
C
534
D
512
60. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. B sits third to the right of C. C sits second to the left of A. F sits third to the right of D. D sits to the immediate left of E. How many people sit between E and B, when counted from the left of E?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Four
61. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 7 4 1 2 4 9 7 5 3 6 1 5 2 7 4 5 8 3 9 6 5 7 3 9 1 4 2 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
Two
B
None
C
One
D
Three
62. In a certain code language, "VACP" is coded as "126" and "MHTJ" is coded as "153". What is the code for "OGQE" in that language?
A
132
B
140
C
135
D
129
63. In a row of 52 people facing north, Neena is 24 th from the right end. If Mishti sits 15 th to the left of Neena, what is Mishti’s position from the left end of the line?
A
16th
B
14th
C
13th
D
15th
64. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 65 B 7 D 912 A 6 C 98 = ?
A
401
B
410
C
444
D
471
65. Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) 5 € $ 4 9 & & 4 € @ © 7 @ 7 9 1 8 # 8 % 5 £ (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a number?
A
9
B
4
C
3
D
8
66. Select the pair that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. JGF−GDC FCB−CZY
A
BYX−XVT
B
BYX−YVU
C
BXV−YVU
D
BXV−XUT
67. Which numbers should come in place of the question marks (?) in the same sequence to make the series logically complete? 989 979 969 ? 949 ? 929
A
959 and 939, respectively
B
959 and 929, respectively
C
929 and 939, respectively
D
949 and 939, respectively
68. KNSM is related to ORWQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, NQVP is related to RUZT. To which of the given options is GJOI related, following the same logic?
A
KOSM
B
KOSL
C
KNSM
D
KNSL
69. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All fruits are vegetables. No vegetable is a pumpkin. Conclusions: (I): No fruit is a pumpkin. (II): Some pumpkins are vegetables. 9927
A
Only conclusion (I) follows
B
Only conclusion (II) follows
C
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
D
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
70. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? SWE UYG WAI YCK ?
A
AME
B
ASE
C
AEM
D
ADE
71. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some brinjals are peppers. Some peppers are turnips. Conclusions: (I) Some brinjals are turnips. (II) All turnips are peppers.
A
Only conclusion (I) follows.
B
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D
Only conclusion (II) follows.
72. Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given below. Both triads follow the same pattern. CL-FO-IK EN-HQ-KM
A
HP-JS-MN
B
HP-JR-MN
C
GP-JS-MN
D
GP-JS-MO
73. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 7 9 5 6 8 9 2 9 7 2 9 4 3 1 5 4 5 8 2 4 1 4 3 1 4 8 1 (Right) How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
A
4
B
5
C
6
D
7
74. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? YCG 87 IMQ 95 SWA 103 CGK 111 ?
A
MPT 118
B
MRT 119
C
MRX 118
D
MQU 119
75. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. Only two people sit between F and C, when counted from the right of F. Only two people sit between C and A, when counted from the right of C. Only three people sit between F and G, when counted from the right of F. E sits to the immediate left of D. How many people sit between D and F, when counted from the right of D?
A
1
B
4
C
2
D
3
76. Which of the following famous footballers was awarded the United States Presidential Medal of Freedom in January 2025, the highest civilian honour of the United States of America?
A
Luiz Suarez
B
Christiano Ronaldo
C
Neymar Jr.
D
Lionel Messi
77. In March 2025, which 12-year-old swimmer set a record by completing the 17 km open- water swim from Gateway of India to Atal Setu?
A
Arjun Borse
B
Vihaan Sharma
C
Rohan Mehta
D
Tanay Tushar Lad
78. Which of the following institutions co-organised 'the Belém Health Action Plan' event with the WHO and other UN partners at COP30 in November 2025?
A
National Institutes of Health (NIH)
B
United Nations University (UNU)
C
Global Institute of Public Health (GIPH)
D
World Trade Institute (WTI)
79. "Operation Abhyaas", a nationwide civil defence mock drill held on 7 May 2025, was organized by which of the following in India?
A
NITI Ayog
B
Ministry of Finance
C
Ministry of Home Affairs
D
Indian Institute of Administrative Sciences
80. The West Bengal workplace safety guidelines (2025) specify that night shifts for women must include ________________.
A
at least two-third female staff or 20 women, whichever is higher
B
at least 10 women or one-third of the total staff, whichever is higher
C
only women supervisors
D
at least 50% female security personnel on every shift
81. As per the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM)–revised Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) for the entire NCR in November 2025, which measure was advanced from Stage II to Stage I?
A
Ensuring uninterrupted power supply to discourage use of DG sets
B
Staggering timings for public offices in Delhi and key NCR districts
C
Complete ban on all construction activities across NCR
D
Allowing offices to work on 50% strength and the rest from home
82. Who holds the record for most IPL fifty-plus scores as of 2025?
A
Virat Kohli
B
David Warner
C
Rohit Sharma
D
Shikhar Dhawan
83. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) introduced a new Blue Category for industries through a circular in February 2025. Which industries fall under it?
A
IT and software service providers such as Infosys
B
High-polluting industries like refineries
C
Textile and leather industries
D
Essential environmental services like waste-to-energy plants
84. In June 2025, Union Home Minister Amit Shah unveiled the Flood Hazard Zonation Atlas of which state?
A
Assam
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Gujarat
D
Maharashtra
85. On 24 July 2025, the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways hosted which event in New Delhi to deliberate on financial strategies for India’s maritime future?
A
Maritime Financing Summit, 2025
B
Maritime Development Forum, 2025
C
Port & Shipping Investment Summit, 2025
D
India Maritime Vision 2047 Conference
86. In November 2025, where will COP30 the UN Climate Change Conference be held?
A
Bangkok, Thailand
B
Nairobi, Kenya
C
Quito, Ecuador
D
Belém, Brazil
87. Which political party has won the bye elections to the constituency of Ludhiana west held in June 2025?
A
Aam Aadmi Party
B
Punjab Seva Dal
C
Indian National Congress
D
Bhartiya Janata Party
88. In April 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) mandated banks to move to the '.bank.in' domain by _____________.
A
31 October 2025
B
31 December 2025
C
31 March 2026
D
30 May 2025
89. In which of the following cities was the regional meeting with Waqf Boards held in October 2025?
A
Delhi
B
Bengaluru
C
Mumbai
D
Hyderabad
90. Which automobile company successfully conducted a launch and landing test of its first experimental reusable rocket on June 17, 2025, in Hokkaido, Japan?
A
Toyota
B
Hyundai
C
Honda
D
Mitsubishi
91. Which of the following organisations successfully flight-tested the nuclear-capable Agni- 5 missile in August 2025?
A
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
B
Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
C
Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL)
D
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
92. In May 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) approved the renaming of the North East Small Finance Bank to ___________.
A
Northeast Micro Finance Bank Limited
B
North East Regional Finance Bank Limited
C
Synergy Small Finance Bank Limited
D
Slice Small Finance Bank Limited
93. Which team won the 2025 EFL Championship playoff final and secured promotion to the Premier League?
A
Sheffield United
B
Leeds United
C
Sunderland
D
Southampton
94. Where was the World Health Summit Regional Meeting, 2025, held?
A
Guwahati
B
Patna
C
New Delhi
D
Kolkata
95. What is the title of Arundhati Roy’s latest book, released in September 2025?
A
Azadi: Freedom. Fascism. Fiction
B
The Ministry of Utmost Happiness
C
Mother Mary Comes to Me
D
The Architecture of Modern Empire "
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