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Group D — Test 63
00:00
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01. Ethanol reacts with sodium leading to the formation of sodium ethoxide with the evolution of:
A
chlorine gas
B
nitrogen gas
C
hydrogen gas
D
bromine gas
02. In humans, after fertilisation, the embryo is implanted in which part of the body?
A
Fallopian tube
B
Ovary
C
Stomach
D
Uterus
03. Which type of bond is present between carbon atoms in saturated hydrocarbons?
A
Double bond
B
Both double and triple bonds
C
Triple bond
D
Single bond
04. Which statement is INCORRECT regarding mass and weight?
A
Mass is scalar, weight is vector.
B
Mass varies from place to place, weight remains constant.
C
Mass is the measure of inertia, weight is the force due to gravity.
D
Mass has SI unit kg, weight has SI unit newton.
05. Which of the following features are displayed by all cells under a microscope?
A
Plasma membrane, nucleus and cytoplasm
B
Only plasma membrane and cytoplasm
C
Only nucleus and cytoplasm
D
Only plasma membrane and nucleus
06. The closeness of magnetic field lines indicates:
A
Length of the magnet
B
Strength of magnetic field
C
Direction of magnetic field
D
Position of the poles
07. Which of the following quantities is a measure of the inertia of a body?
A
Acceleration
B
Force
C
Weight
D
Mass
08. Which of the following occurs due to continuous movement of gas particles?
A
Diffusion
B
Evaporation
C
Melting
D
Condensation
09. Read the given assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the most appropriate option. (A): Oral contraceptive pills are a permanent method of contraception. (R): They change hormone levels and prevent ovulation.
A
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C
A is false, but R is true
D
Both A and R are false
10. We express the concentration of solution in various ways. Which of the following method is INCORRECT?
A
Mass by volume percentage of a solution
B
Mass by mass percentage of a solution
C
Volume by volume percentage of a solution
D
Volume by mass percentage of a solution
11. Which statement best supports the Law of Constant Proportions?
A
Mud from two ponds containing different minerals
B
Sand from two places with varying grain size
C
Water from two sources with identical composition
D
Soil from two areas with mixed organic content
12. What are the noticeable changes observed when an iron nail is placed in copper sulphate solution?
A
The iron nail becomes brownish in colour and the blue colour of the copper sulphate solution changes to yellow.
B
The iron nail remains as it is and the blue colour of the copper sulphate solution fades.
C
The iron nail becomes brownish in colour and the blue colour of the copper sulphate solution remains blue.
D
The iron nail becomes brownish in colour and the blue colour of the copper sulphate solution fades.
13. Which of the following metals is least reactive?
A
Sodium
B
Gold
C
Zinc
D
Magnesium
14. Which of the following help in maintaining the supply of nutrients to the growing plants in the forest?
A
Decomposers
B
Secondary consumers
C
Tertiary consumers
D
Primary consumers
15. What is the name of the fluid present inside a plant cell vacuole?
A
Protoplasm
B
Cell sap
C
Nucleoplasm
D
Cytoplasm
16. Which of the following mirrors is used as a shaving mirror to get a magnified image of the face?
A
Plane mirror
B
Convex mirror
C
Concave mirror
D
Parabolic mirror
17. During energy transformation, the total energy of a system:
A
always increases
B
disappears completely
C
remains unchanged
D
always decreases
18. Why is it advised to clean your mouth after vomiting?
A
To neutralise the acid and protect tooth enamel
B
To remove bad odour
C
To stop the spread of infection
D
To avoid dehydration
19. Which of the following best describes a person with hypermetropia?
A
They can see nearby objects clearly but distant ones appear blurry
B
They are unable to see anything without glasses
C
Their vision is equally blurred for both near and distant objects
D
They can see faraway objects clearly but struggle to see things up close
20. In human females, which of the following structures carries egg from the ovary to the womb?
A
Vaginal tube
B
Fallopian tube
C
Cervix
D
Uterus
21. In a house, electricity is supplied at 220 V. If the maximum power consumption of the house is 11 kW, what should the rating of the main fuse be?
A
20 A
B
30 A
C
50 A
D
100 A
22. According to Newton’s third law, action and reaction forces:
A
cancel each other out because they are equal
B
act on the same object at the same time
C
act on the same object at different times
D
act on two different objects at the same time
23. Megaphones, loudhailers, and shehnais are designed to:
A
convert sound waves into electrical signals
B
reduce the intensity of sound waves
C
spread sound waves equally in all directions
D
focus sound waves in a particular direction
24. Which of the following best describes the relation between a cell’s shape and its role?
A
Cell shape is random.
B
All cells are round regardless of function.
C
All cells have the same function.
D
Cell shape supports its specific function.
25. Which of the following correctly pairs a nerve type with its origin?
A
Spinal nerves – Brain
B
Cranial nerves – Spinal cord
C
Cranial nerves – Brain
D
Spinal nerves – Heart
26. A dealer allowed a 50% discount on an article and still managed a 71% profit. Find the ratio of the cost price to the listed price. 656
A
47 : 174
B
49 : 173
C
53 : 173
D
50 : 171
27. The average age of 24 students of a class is 46 years. If the age of the teacher is also included, the average age of the whole group becomes 47 years. The age (in years) of the teacher is:
A
70
B
71
C
73
D
74
28. In a bag containing red, green and pink tokens, the ratio of red to green tokens was 15 : 19 while the ratio of pink to red tokens was 17 : 2. What was the ratio of green to pink tokens? 5289
A
37:257
B
39:259
C
41:260
D
38:255
29. The average of the first 9 multiples of 3 is:
A
9
B
15
C
13.5
D
3
30. In an election between two candidates, 20% of the total votes were declared invalid. The winning candidate received 40% of the valid votes and secured 1,60,000 more valid votes than the runner-up, who received 32% of the valid votes. Find the total number of valid votes.
A
10,00,000
B
25,00,000
C
12,00,000
D
20,00,000
31. A trader marked his goods 35% above its cost price. He then gave a discount of 15%. Find his profit percentage.
A
20%
B
15.25%
C
14.75%
D
16.5%
32. The present ages of P and Q are in the ratio 9 : 8 and after 2 years from now, they will be in the ratio 10 : 9. The present age of P is:
A
16 years
B
9 years
C
8 years
D
18 years
33. A jeep travels 80 km at the speed of 40 km/hr and the next 36 km at the speed of 18 km/hr. What is its average speed (in km/hr)? 3317
A
23
B
35
C
33
D
29
34. An article was bought for ₹4,000. Its price was marked up by 40%. Thereafter, it was sold at a discount of 20% on the marked price. What was the per cent profit on the transaction? 431
A
14%
B
12%
C
10%
D
11%
35. The largest four-digit number which, when divided by 14, 9 and 6, leaves remainder 2 in each case is:
A
9948
B
9984
C
9956
D
9998
36. 4 men can complete a piece of work in 8 days while 2 women can do it in 10 days. In how many days can 5 women and 8 men complete it? 3873
A
2
B
4
C
7
D
6
37. The ratio of the speeds of two trucks is 5 : 4. The time taken by the faster truck to cover a distance of 200 km is 2 hours less than the other. Find the speed of the slower truck.
A
20 km/hr
B
24 km/hr
C
17 km/hr
D
26 km/hr
38. Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7.5% per annum, respectively. Mohan borrowed an amount of ₹2,60,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹) between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Mohan after 2 years.
A
20,800
B
22,300
C
20,300
D
21,800
39. Roshan and Anshu together invested ₹13,500 in a business. At the end of the year, out of a total profit of ₹9,000, Roshan's share was ₹1,300. What was Roshan's investment?
A
₹1,565
B
₹1,765
C
₹2,295
D
₹1,950 Simplify the given expression.
40. 12 + {6 × 27 ÷ 3 + 2} – (16 ÷ 8) × 5
A
58
B
56
C
55
D
57
41. If the volume of a cylinder is 1848 cm 3 , and its height is 12 cm, find the curved surface area (in cm 2 ).
A
528
B
476
C
432
D
560
42. In a zoo, there are 32 ducks, 41 sheep, 7 horses and some crows. If the total number of feet is 211 more than the number of heads, find the number of crows.
A
21
B
35
C
43
D
30
43. A and B working together can do a piece of work in 3 days. B alone can do the same work in 6 days. How long (in days) will A alone take to do double the work?
A
15
B
13
C
6
D
12
44.
A
1
B
4
C
2
D
8
45. Which of the following options is NOT true about triangles?
A
An isosceles right-angled triangle with area 50 square units has one side with length 8 units.
B
If the largest side of a triangle is 4 units, then its area is less than 8 square units.
C
For a given area, the equilateral triangle has the least perimeter.
D
There are right-angled triangles with three consecutive natural numbers as lengths of its sides.
46. Raman's income is ₹10,200. He saves 30% of his income. If his income increases by 14% and expenditure increases by 40%, then his savings will:
A
increase by ₹1,429
B
decrease by ₹1,428
C
decrease by ₹1,427
D
increase by ₹1,430
47. A typist takes 40 minutes to type 2 pages. How many pages will he type in 80 minutes?
A
3
B
1
C
4
D
2
48. When the price of a book is reduced by 16%, its sale increases by 80%. What is the net per cent increment in the revenue? 6715
A
49.2%
B
51.2%
C
48.8%
D
50.6%
49. The inradius of a triangle is 8 cm and the sum of the lengths of its sides is 60 cm. Find the area (in cm 2 ) of the triangle.
A
240
B
260
C
480
D
280
50. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? CMN101, KUV82, SCD63, AKL44, ?
A
ISE25
B
MST25
C
IWT25
D
IST25
51. A, B, C, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. Only two people sit between S and C when counted from the right of S. Only two people sit between C and U when counted from the left of U. Only three people sit between S and B when counted from the left of B. R sits to the immediate left of T. Who sits third to the left of A?
A
C
B
B
C
T
D
R
52. Sonu starts from point A and drives 61 km towards west. He then takes a left turn, drives 67 km, turns left and drives 67 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 80 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 6 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again? (Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
10 km to the north
B
12 km to the south
C
13 km to the south
D
11 km to the north
53. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (46, 23, 32) (72, 36, 45) 6784
A
(194, 97, 105)
B
(98, 49, 58)
C
(156, 78, 88)
D
(162, 81, 92)
54. In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the son of B’, A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’, A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’, A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’. Based on the above, how is D related to J if ‘D ÷ F – G x H + J’?
A
Son's wife's brother
B
Wife's brother
C
Wife's father
D
Son's wife's father
55. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? GPM ENK CLI AJG ?
A
YLI
B
YHE
C
CHI
D
ZHE
56. Five people, A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row, facing north. A sits at the extreme right end of the line. D sits to the immediate left of A. B sits between C and E. How many people sit between A and B?
A
2
B
1
C
0
D
3
57. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
QUW
B
DHJ
C
LPR
D
HMN
58. Bhaskar starts from Point A and drives 11 km towards north. He then takes a right turn, drives 4 km, turns right and drives 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 9 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 6 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
A
13 km towards south
B
11 km towards west
C
17 km towards north
D
13 km towards west
59. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 1011 1010 1020 1019 1029 1028 ?
A
1040
B
1034
C
1038
D
1036
60. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following equation? 9 B 14 C 196 A 7 D 24 = ?
A
142
B
131
C
130
D
137
61. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 6 4 3 2 7 6 4 9 9 6 5 4 9 7 6 8 3 5 1 5 1 2 4 8 9 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
Three
B
Four
C
One
D
Two
62. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
MK – CA
B
AY-QO
C
NK – DB
D
QO-GE
63. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). (Counting to be done from left to right only.) (Left) 3 3 3 4 9 8 9 1 2 2 5 5 5 1 3 1 4 4 1 5 8 2 2 6 3 7 6 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number? 4389
A
7
B
6
C
5
D
4
64. Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) * 3 © £ % 2 7 3 © £ & @ & 5 @ 3 3 @ * @ $ 4 (Right) How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A
Two
B
Four
C
One
D
Three
65. CFRT is related to GKVY in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, SZHN is related to WELS. To which of the given options is EOTC related, following the same logic?
A
ITBH
B
IXDE
C
ITXH
D
ITXD
66. Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only four boxes are kept between A and E. Only C is kept above A. Only two boxes are kept between G and F. B is kept immediately above D. F is not kept immediately above B. How many boxes are kept below B?
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
1
67. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some dogs are birds. All birds are pets. Conclusions: (I): Some pets are not dogs. (II): Some dogs are pets.
A
Only conclusion (I) follows
B
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
C
Only conclusion (II) follows
D
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
68. Seven people, B, C, D, I, J, K and L, are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only three people sit between B and K. C sits to the immediate left of K. No one sits to the right of L. Only one person sits between L and K. J sits to the immediate right of D. How many people sit between I and J?
A
Two
B
Four
C
One
D
Three
69. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 116 ÷ 9 + 427 × 7 − 13 = ?
A
934
B
996
C
985
D
923
70. Which numbers should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series so that it can complete logically? 5, 15, 27, 41, 57, ?
A
75
B
82
C
76
D
80
71. Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. BCG−FGK WXB−ABF
A
FGK−IKN
B
FFI−JKO
C
FGK−JKO
D
FFI−IJN
72. If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 18 – 8 ÷ 4 + 64 × 16 = ?
A
148
B
142
C
144
D
146
73. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All diamonds are stones. No diamond is a necklace. Conclusion (I): Some stones are diamonds. Conclusion (II): No stone is a necklace.
A
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
B
Only conclusion (II) follows.
C
Only conclusion (I) follows.
D
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
74. Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. YAB−XZA TVW−SUV
A
IJJ−GIJ
B
IJJ−HJK
C
IKL−HJK
D
IKL−GJJ
75. Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers.) (Left) 2 6 & 2 9 5 5 € 1 $ 1 6 @ & € # 3 @ £ % 4 9 (Right) How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Four
D
One
76. In a certain code language, ‘zebra rain union’ is coded as ‘ds cm oh’ and ‘video union oven’ is coded as ‘ng oa cm’. How is ‘union’ coded in that language?
A
cm
B
oh
C
ng
D
ds
77. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 100 85 70 55 40 ?
A
24
B
25
C
22
D
23
78. Seven boxes, B, C, D, I, J, K and L, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only I is kept above L. Only three boxes are kept between I and B. Only K is kept below C. D is kept immediately above B. How many boxes are kept between J and K?
A
One
B
Four
C
Two
D
Three
79. In a certain code language, ‘ROME’ is coded as ‘2347’ and ‘BERM’ is coded as ‘7254’. What is the code for ‘B’ in the given code language?
A
5
B
2
C
4
D
7
80. Which of the following countries had awarded Prime Minister Narendra Modi its highest civilian honour in June 2025?
A
Cyprus
B
Greece
C
Italy
D
France
81. Dassault Aviation and Reliance Aerostructure Limited (RAL), in June 2025, announced at Paris Air Show execution of an agreement to manufacture which of the following in India for the Global Market by 2028?
A
Falcon 3000 LXS Business Executive Jets
B
Falcon 1000 LXS Business Executive Jets
C
Falcon 2000 LXS Business Executive Jets
D
Falcon 4000 LXS Business Executive Jets
82. At the 78 th World Health Assembly in May 2025, how many countries voted in favour of the historic WHO Pandemic Agreement?
A
124 countries
B
108 countries
C
132 countries
D
119 countries
83. Which of the following features is a major design focus for the Zorawar tank?
A
Amphibious capability and lightweight design
B
Stealth technology for naval use
C
Submarine detection system
D
Nuclear warhead capability
84. Which of the following age groups was highlighted at the Summer Book Writing Festival 2025?
A
School students aged 6 and above
B
Authors aged between 18 and 26
C
Retired teachers
D
School students aged 8 and above
85. In June 2025, which of the following states increased the quota for minorities under its housing schemes from 10% to 15%?
A
Assam
B
Karnataka
C
Gujarat
D
Kerala
86. Who among the following became the youngest Formula 1 driver to win three races in a row in 2025?
A
George Russell
B
Kimi Antonelli
C
Lando Norris
D
Max Verstappen
87. In news in 2025, MISHTI scheme for ecological and community sustainability stands for:
A
Mangrove Improvement Scheme for Health and Technology Integration
B
Mission for Inland Sustainable Tree Harvesting and Innovation
C
Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Incomes
D
Marine Initiative for Sustainable Habitat and Income
88. Which of the following is a major application of 3D bioprinting demonstrated at MSU Vadodara in 2025?
A
Weather forecasting models
B
Regenerative medicine and tissue engineering
C
Blockchain-based financial transactions
D
Satellite communication systems
89. In which city were the 2025 World Aquatics Championships held?
A
Canada
B
United Arab Emirates
C
Japan
D
Singapore
90. In July 2025, which international city was in the spotlight for hosting the 17 th BRICS Summit?
A
New Delhi
B
Rio de Janeiro
C
Beijing
D
Johannesburg
91. In which state was the 'Viksit Krishi Sankalp Abhiyan (VKSA)' launched by the Union Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan, in May 2025?
A
Telangana
B
Odisha
C
Rajasthan
D
Uttar Pradesh
92. The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Fourth Amendment) Bill, 2022, seeks to amend the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950, with respect to its application to which state?
A
Telangana
B
Karnataka
C
Odisha
D
Kerala
93. The Reserve Bank of India revised Priority Sector Lending (PSL) guidelines for Small Finance Banks from FY 2025–26, reducing the PSL target to what percentage of ANBC (adjusted net bank credit) or Credit Equivalent of Off-Balance Sheet Exposures (CEOBE)?
A
40%
B
30%
C
60%
D
50%
94. In March 2025, Operation Brahma was launched by the NDRF to rescue earthquake victims of which country?
A
Nepal
B
Myanmar
C
Sri Lanka
D
Bhutan
95. Who among the following Indians set a javelin throw record of 84.39 m at National Games 2025?
A
Shivpal Singh
B
Annu Rani
C
Sachin Yadav
D
Neeraj Chopra
96. As announced in 2025, the headquarters of the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) will be established in:
A
South Africa
B
India
C
Brazil
D
New Zealand
97. Who was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2025 for his contributions to Indian hockey?
A
Satyapal Singh
B
Harvinder Singh
C
PR Sreejesh
D
IM Vijayan
98. What was India’s rank among the most polluted countries in the World Air Quality Report 2024, released in March 2025?
A
5th
B
1st
C
3rd
D
7th
99. What is the theme of the 11 th International Day of Yoga 2025?
A
Yoga and Our Health
B
Do Yoga for Good Health
C
Do Yoga for Long Life
D
Yoga for One Earth, One Health "
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