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Group D — Test 58
00:00
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01. In the reaction between aqueous sodium sulphate and aqueous barium chloride, which compound forms the white precipitate?
A
Barium sulphate ( )
B
Sodium chloride ( )
C
Sodium sulphate ( )
D
Barium chloride ( )
02. The sign convention for focal length of a concave lens _________.
A
depends on object position
B
is zero
C
is positive
D
is negative
03. What is the benefit of seed dispersal in plants?
A
It promotes the availability of mineral nutrients to plants.
B
It increases competition between plants for sunlight.
C
It enables plants to expand their distribution.
D
It makes more water available to plants.
04. During evaporation, when the average kinetic energy of molecules decreases, what is the effect on temperature?
A
It decreases.
B
It increases.
C
It will remain the same.
D
No effect on temperature.
05. In a parallel combination of resistors, which of the following quantities remains the same across all the resistors?
A
The equivalent resistance (Req)
B
The electric current (I)
C
The power consumed (P)
D
The potential difference (V)
06. A person ignores regular vehicle maintenance. Which of the following is most likely to happen?
A
Increased fuel efficiency
B
Poor engine performance
C
Better tyre grip and less pollution
D
Decreased pollution
07. Which of the following events directly triggers the process of menstruation?
A
Fertilisation of the egg
B
Maturation of the egg
C
Release of sperm into the vagina
D
Non fertilisation of egg and hormonal changes
08. Which of the following is a correct property of solids?
A
Solids have strong intermolecular forces.
B
Solids are highly compressible.
C
Solids diffuse easily.
D
Solids have no fixed shape.
09. A woman using a copper-T complains of abdominal pain and discomfort. What is the likely reason?
A
Infection in the stomach
B
Hormonal imbalance due to tablets
C
Blockage in fallopian tube
D
Uterine irritation caused by the IUD
10. Which of the following is true for mixtures but NOT for compounds?
A
Components are present in fixed ratio.
B
Components can be separated by physical methods.
C
New substances are formed.
D
Components lose their individual properties.
11. According to Newton’s Second Law of Motion, force is given by the relation F = ma. If a body’s velocity changes from u (initial velocity) to v (final velocity) in time t, which of the following expressions correctly gives the force acting on the body?
A
F=m(v-u)/t
B
F=t(v-u)/m
C
F=mt/(v-u)
D
F=m(u-v)/t
12. A passenger in a moving bus falls forward when the bus suddenly stops. This is due to which of the following?
A
Inertia of motion of the passenger
B
Gravity
C
Friction between seat and passenger
D
Force applied by the bus
13. Which type of connective tissue connects muscles to bones?
A
Tendon
B
Joints
C
Ligament
D
Blood
14. What is the main function of bile in human digestion?
A
To mix food with saliva for easy swallowing
B
To make food alkaline and break down large fat globules
C
To digest proteins completely in the stomach
D
To convert glucose into glycogen in the liver
15. Which method is commonly used for extracting moderately reactive metals such as iron from their ores?
A
Dissolving and melting of the ore material in concentrated acids
B
Electrolysis performed on the molten form of metal oxide ores
C
Chemical reduction of the ore using carbon-based reducing agents
D
Direct heating of the metallic ore strongly in the presence of air
16. When an object is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens, the image is formed:
A
Between F and O, virtual and erect.
B
At 2F, inverted, and magnified.
C
At infinity, real, inverted, and highly enlarged.
D
At the focus, inverted, and of same size.
17. Which of the following correctly describes parenchyma, a simple permanent tissue?
A
Parenchyma is made of living, loosely arranged cells with thin walls that store food.
B
Parenchyma cells are highly specialised and tightly packed with no space between them.
C
Parenchyma consists of dead, thick-walled cells without intercellular spaces.
D
Parenchyma is a complex tissue found only in vascular bundles.
18. Consider the following statements and select the correct option. Statement A: Sugarcane juice can be fermented to give alcohol (ethanol). Statement B: Alcohol is added to petrol because it is a cleaner fuel.
A
Statement A is incorrect, but B is correct.
B
Both statements A and B are correct.
C
Both statements A and B are incorrect.
D
Statement A is correct, but B is incorrect.
19. What happens to the gravitational force between two objects if both of their masses are doubled?
A
The force becomes quadruple
B
The force becomes double
C
The force becomes four times greater
D
The force becomes half
20. Four resistors of 5 Ω , 15 Ω , 20 Ω and 40 Ω are connected in series. The equivalent resistance is ______.
A
0.5 Ω
B
3 Ω
C
20 Ω
D
80 Ω
21. Which of the following represents a straight chain hydrocarbon?
A
Benzene
B
Cyclopentane
C
Isobutane
D
Butane
22. energy of an object?
A
Potential energy and Kinetic energy
B
Electrical energy and Light energy
C
Nuclear energy and Sound energy
D
Heat energy and Chemical energy
23. What are the main products formed when ethanol burns completely in air?
A
Carbon dioxide and water
B
Ethane and water
C
Oxygen and methane
D
Carbon monoxide and hydrogen
24. Which of the following statements is true about movement in the plant 'Touch me not'?
A
Plant movement happens due to growth of new xylem cells.
B
Plant movement occurs because phloem transports food.
C
Plant movement takes place because roots absorb minerals.
D
Plant movement happens due to changes in water content in cells.
25. An ultrasonic wave has a frequency of 33 kHz. What will be the wavelength of this wave, if its speed is 330 m/s?
A
10 m
B
100 m
C
0.1 m
D
0.01 m
26. Two trains are running in opposite directions at speeds of 72 km/hr and 108 km/hr, respectively. The length of the first train is 150 m, and the length of the second train is 200 m. How much time will they take to cross each other?
A
9 seconds
B
5 seconds
C
14 seconds
D
7 seconds
27. The number of prime numbers between 472 and 486 is:
A
4
B
2
C
1
D
3
28. Ajay, Maya and Mohan started a business in partnership investing in the ratio of 11 : 16 : 6, respectively. At the end of the year, they earned a profit of ₹69,300, which is 70% of their total investment. How much did Maya invest (in ₹)?
A
47,872
B
48,000
C
47,850
D
48,184
29. A running track consists of two straight parallel segments, each 120 m long, connected at both ends by semicircular arcs. The inner perimeter of the track is 504 m. If the track has a uniform width of 18 m throughout, find the outer perimeter (in m, rounded off to the nearest tens) of the track.
A
610
B
600
C
620
D
590
30.
A
30,808
B
38,808
C
38,800
D
30,800
31. A money box contains only ₹2 coins and ₹5 coins. There are 20 coins in total, and their combined value is ₹70. How many ₹2 coins are there?
A
5
B
10
C
12
D
15
32. Kiran spends 65% of his income. If he saves ₹42,000, then his income (in ₹) is:
A
1,21,000
B
27,300
C
1,19,000
D
1,20,000
33. A retailer offers the following discount schemes for buyers on an article. Which scheme will be the LEAST beneficial to the customer? i. A discount of 48%. ii. A discount of 31% followed by a discount of 44%. iii. Successive discounts of 32% and 21%.
A
Scheme ii
B
Scheme iii
C
Scheme iii and Scheme ii
D
Scheme i
34. An agent sells a pressure cooker with a marked price of ₹8,460 at a discount of 30%. What is the selling price (in ₹) of the pressure cooker?
A
6,166
B
6,367
C
5,922
D
6,768
35. P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 9 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern with water in 12 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same cistern with water?
A
19
B
9
C
10
D
18
36. The arithmetic mean of the observations 94, 59, 46, 34, 15, 55, 89, 98 and 68 is:
A
63
B
62
C
60
D
67
37. Due to a water crisis, 40% of the initial population left the village and 35% of the remaining left the town to pursue a job. If presently 2340 people inhabit the village, what is the ratio of initial population to present population?
A
103:43
B
100:49
C
105:40
D
100:39
38. A can complete a piece of work in 24 days, B in 18 days and C in 36 days. All of them started working together. After working for 4 days, A left the work. B and C continued, but B left 3 days before the completion of the work. How long (in days) did the work last?
A
14
B
12
C
11
D
13
39. In a quadrilateral IJKL, ∠ I = 36° and ∠ J = 44°. The bisectors of ∠ K and ∠ L meet at Z. What is the measure of ∠ LZK?
A
55°
B
40°
C
54°
D
34°
40. Mohan is twice as old as Suresh. Four years ago, the sum of their ages was 40. What is the present age of Suresh?
A
32 years
B
16 years
C
24 years
D
18 years
41.
A
7:8
B
8:9
C
7:9
D
11:8
42. A shopkeeper buys a bag for ₹850 and sells it for ₹1,020. Find his profit percentage.
A
40%
B
20%
C
30%
D
25%
43. The monthly incomes of two friends Rupesh and Manjit, are in the ratio 5 : 8, respectively, and each of them saves ₹84,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly expenditure is 1 : 3, find the monthly income of Rupesh (in ₹).
A
1,19,000
B
1,68,000
C
1,20,000
D
1,21,000
44. The amount on a sum of ₹8,800 at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded annually, in 2 years will be:
A
₹9,757
B
₹11,225
C
₹10,012
D
₹10,648
45. ₹6,129 is divided among P, Q and R in such a way that if ₹71, ₹38 and ₹20 is deducted from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 14:3:8. Find the difference between the original shares of Q and R.
A
₹1,100
B
₹1,050
C
₹1,182
D
₹1,150
46. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (5, 3, 16) (7, 2, 15)
A
(8, 5, 30)
B
(4, 3, 9)
C
(3,4, 13)
D
(6, 8, 43)
47. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
FD – MJ
B
OM – VS
C
DB – KH
D
XV – AC
48. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some pens are combs. All shirts are tails. All combs are shirts. Conclusions: (I) Some tails are combs. (II) Some shirts are pens.
A
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
B
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
C
Only conclusion (I) follows.
D
Only conclusion (II) follows.
49. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 119 110 102 95 ? 84 80
A
86
B
90
C
89
D
87
50. Mudit starts from Point Y and drives 92 km towards South. He then takes a left turn, drives 59 km, turns left and drives 38 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 28 km. He then turns left, drives 54 km to stop at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
91 km towards east
B
79 km towards east
C
87 km towards west
D
84 km towards west
51. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? ASE KCO UMY EWI ?
A
OGS
B
OGT
C
OGY
D
OSG
52. If ‘P’ stands for ‘×’, ‘Q’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘R’ stands for ‘-’ and ‘S’ stands for ‘+’, what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 3 P 9 R (14 Q 2) P 6 S 80 Q 5 S 4 P 10 = ?
A
52
B
33
C
41
D
59
53. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. B sits third to the right of A. E sits to the immediate left of D. D is not an immediate neighbour of A. F sits to the immediate right of C. The position of how many persons will remain unchanged if all persons are arranged in alphabetical order in clockwise direction starting from A (including A)?
A
Four
B
Three
C
Two
D
One
54. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, ?
A
63
B
65
C
58
D
55
55. Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit to the left of F. Only one person sits between D and E. F sits to the immediate left of D. A sits to the immediate right of C. B sits third to the right of A. Who sits at the extreme left end of the line?
A
D
B
A
C
C
D
E
56. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some Mercuries are Venuses. All Venuses are Earths. No Earth is Mars. Conclusions: (I) Some Mercuries are Earths. (II) No Venus is Mars.
A
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
B
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
C
Only conclusion (II) follows.
D
Only conclusion (I) follows.
57. Seven boxes, L, M, N, O, Q, R and S, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the same order. L is kept immediately above O. Only M is kept below R. N is kept immediately above Q. Only two boxes are kept above L. How many boxes are kept between S and N?
A
Four
B
Three
C
Two
D
One
58. Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only five people sit between D and B. C sits to the immediate left of B. Only one person sits between C and
A
1
B
4
C
3
D
2
59. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 4 ÷ 2 + 15 × 5 − 8 = ? + 5
A
4
B
18
C
8
D
12
60. In a certain code language, ‘trust brings peace’ is coded as ‘tg dx pm’ and ‘find trust within’ is coded as ‘pm av wj’. How is ‘trust’ coded in that language?
A
tg
B
pm
C
av
D
dx
61. Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. GAN : KVR OQV : SLZ
A
NEQ : RCU
B
HTV : LQZ
C
LZA : QVF
D
WGD : ABH
62. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
OUX
B
TZC
C
EKN
D
FLQ
63. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 324 526 249 267 185 (Right) (Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) (NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.) What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second digit of the lowest number?
A
11
B
14
C
13
D
12
64. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 0 5 15 30 ? 75
A
40
B
45
C
55
D
50
65. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? LR21 MS30 NT39 OU48 ?
A
PU57
B
PU58
C
PV58
D
PV57
66. What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 59 ÷ 11 + 833 × 7 − 24 = ?
A
547
B
536
C
554
D
512
67. In a car park, vehicle A is to the west of vehicle B. Vehicle C is to the east of vehicle B. Vehicle D is to the north of vehicle B. Vehicle E is to the south of vehicle C. Vehicle F is to the north of vehicle C. What is the position of vehicle E with respect to vehicle A?
A
South
B
North-east
C
South-east
D
East
68. In a certain code language, ‘A x B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’, ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’, ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ and ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the son of B’. How is L related to Q if ‘L + M − N x P ÷ Q’?
A
Daughter's husband
B
Sister's son
C
Brother's son
D
Daughter's son
69. Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 8 2 2 4 3 9 4 3 8 9 5 5 6 5 3 7 5 3 9 6 6 5 3 1 8 1 8 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
2
B
4
C
1
D
3
70. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. DUAL – ULDA – ADUL RATE – AERT – TRAE
A
GROW – ROWG – ORGW
B
VIEW – WVIE – EWIV
C
ROAD – ODRA – AROD
D
RENT – RTEN – ENRT
71. LMQR is related to VWAB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, IJNO is related to STXY. To which of the given options is HIMN related, following the same logic?
A
RRVX
B
RSWX
C
RTVE
D
RSVX
72. In a certain code language, ‘video oak bell’ is coded as ' of br mw' and ‘hair bell dew’ is coded as ‘br ui ee’. How is ‘bell’ coded in the given language?
A
of
B
br
C
ui
D
mw
73. Seven boxes A, B, C, D, M, N and O are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. B is kept second from the bottom. Only three boxes are kept between B and
A
Four
B
Two
C
One
D
Three
74. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Left) 4 8 7 6 3 9 3 2 8 2 9 4 5 6 5 4 1 3 5 9 7 9 9 4 2 5 3 6 1 7 2 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a perfect square and also immediately followed by an even number? (NOTE: 1 is also a perfect square.)
A
Two
B
One
C
More than three
D
Three
75. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 6 3 3 £ * 9 € £ € $ 9 @ 7 4 5 # 9 2 1 £ 7 5 (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A
2
B
1
C
3
D
4
76. In 2025, the maiden flight-tests of the Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS) by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) were conducted off the coast of which of the following states of India?
A
West Bengal
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Gujarat
D
Odisha
77. Where did the RBI relocate its Andhra Pradesh Regional Office in June 2025?
A
Vijayawada
B
Guntur
C
Visakhapatnam
D
Amaravati
78. In November 2025, the Supreme Court of India held that every arrested individual must be provided with the written grounds of arrest in which language?
A
A language understood by the arrested person
B
Any official language of the state
C
The language of the arresting officer’s choice
D
English only
79. In 2025, which organisation reintroduced the SPREE initiative and launched the Amnesty Scheme – 2025 to expand social security coverage for workers?
A
NITI Aayog
B
Employees Provident Fund Organisation
C
Employees’ State Insurance Corporation
D
Ministry of Labour and Employment
80. In the 2025 Asian Athletics Championships held in Gumi, South Korea, Tejaswin Shankar made history by becoming the first Indian to win two medals in which specific athletics event?
A
Heptathlon
B
Pentathlon
C
Triathlon
D
Decathlon
81. For which novel did David Szalay receive the Booker Prize in 2025?
A
Flesh
B
The Sea of Trees
C
Heart Lamp
D
Last Empire
82. At which event was the ENDOVEDA platform for efficient endoscopy reporting unveiled in July 2025?
A
India Health Conclave, New Delhi
B
Global Gastro Summit, Hyderabad
C
MedTech Expo 2025, Bengaluru
D
Endocon 2025, Jaipur
83. In March 2025, the Parliament passed the Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill. It amended the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, and _________.
A
Banking Regulation Act, 1949
B
Companies Act, 2013
C
Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
D
Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
84. Who was conferred the Padma Shri in 2025 for revitalising Kani shawl weaving in the field of Art and Literature?
A
Stephen Knapp
B
Bheru Singh Chouhan
C
Bhimavva Doddabalappa Shillekyathara
D
Farooq Ahmad Mir
85. Which organisation expressed serious concerns about the potential escape of Ebola samples in Goma, Democratic Republic of Congo?
A
Doctors Without Borders
B
World Health Organization (WHO)
C
International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC)
D
United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)
86. Which former Olympic swimmer was elected as the first female and African President of the IOC in March 2025?
A
Kirsty Coventry
B
Cathy Freeman
C
Penny Heyns
D
Inge de Bruijn
87. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is seeking to collaborate with the European Space Agency (ESA) on which of the following missions to track and study the Apophis asteroid, which is slated to make a close encounter with Earth in 2029?
A
Zuris mission
B
Cristono mission
C
Ramses mission
D
Kopunegar mission
88. Which former RBI Governor became PM’s Principal Secretary, signaling strong economic emphasis in February 2025?
A
Manmohan Singh
B
YV Reddy
C
Shaktikanta Das
D
Urjit Patel
89. What new title did the Amendment give to the Waqf Act, 1995?
A
Unified Waqf Empowerment Act and management of Waqf properties and boards, 1995
B
Waqf Efficiency and Reform Act, 1995
C
United Waqf Administration Act, 1995
D
United Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development Act, 1995
90. According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD), in October 2025, severe cyclonic storm "Montha" crossed the Andhra Pradesh coast between which two locations?
A
Paradip and Digha
B
Visakhapatnam and Gopalpur
C
Machilipatnam and Kalingapatnam
D
Chennai and Puducherry
91. Which of the following teams was the runner-up of the 18 th Edition of the Indian Premier League in 2025?
A
Punjab Kings
B
Gujarat Titans
C
Chennai Super Kings
D
Sunrisers Hyderabad
92. Which of the following sectors is given special focus under the Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme launched in 2025?
A
Agriculture
B
Banking
C
Tourism
D
Manufacturing
93. In which of the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) is India on track or maintaining SDG achievement, as per the Sustainable Development Report 2025?
A
SDG 14
B
SDG 1
C
SDG 9
D
SDG 13
94. Which Indian cricketer became only the second wicketkeeper in Test history to score centuries in both innings during the first Test against England at Headingley in June 2025?
A
Wriddhiman Saha
B
Ishan Kishan
C
Rishabh Pant
D
KL Rahul
95. According to the Sustainable Development Report, 2025, what is India's rank on the SDG Index and what is its approximate score?
A
99th with score ≈ 66.95
B
79th with score ≈ 72.30
C
89th with score ≈ 70.10
D
109th with score ≈ 62.00 "
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