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Group D — Test 55
00:00
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01. The image formed by a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm is real, inverted, and enlarged in size as compared to the size of the object. Which of the following is true about the position of the object?
A
The object is placed between 20 cm and 40 cm from the pole of the mirror.
B
The object is placed at 10 cm from the pole of the mirror.
C
The object is placed at 20 cm from the pole of the mirror.
D
The object is placed at 40 cm from the pole of the mirror.
02. A ship floats on water because:
A
the surface tension holds it afloat
B
the density of water is greater than that of the ship material
C
the atmospheric pressure supports the ship
D
the weight of water displaced equals the weight of the ship
03. What is the main goal of crop variety improvement?
A
To grow only ornamental plants
B
To reduce the number of crops grown
C
To develop crops with better yield and useful traits
D
To increase water content in soil
04. Which of the following best explains the liquefaction of gases under high pressure?
A
Gases expand indefinitely, so pressure has no effect
B
Higher pressure reduces the space between particles, leading to liquefaction
C
Increased molecular size leads to condensation
D
Higher pressure increases temperature, leading to phase change
05. According to Joule’s law of heating, if the current flowing through a resistor is doubled while resistance and time remain constant, then the heat produced (H) will increase by a factor of ________.
A
two
B
eight
C
sixteen
D
four
06. What colour does copper turn when it undergoes corrosion over time?
A
Red
B
Grey
C
Green
D
White
07. Which of the following is a compound?
A
Salt (NaCl)
B
Lemon juice
C
Soil
D
Air
08. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about linear velocity?
A
Linear velocity is constant for uniform motion.
B
Linear velocity depends on displacement and time.
C
It is the rate of change of displacement.
D
The SI unit of linear velocity is m/s².
09. Which compound from the following is an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
A
Methane
B
Ethene
C
Butane
D
Propane
10. Why do aquatic organisms breathe faster than terrestrial organisms?
A
Because water exerts less resistance on breathing organs
B
Because diffusion of oxygen in water is faster than in air
C
Because they absorb oxygen directly from sunlight through gills
D
Because the amount of dissolved oxygen in water is very low
11. The _________ helps in the movement of mucus along the lining of the respiratory tract.
A
simple squamous epithelium
B
ciliated columnar epithelium
C
stratified squamous epithelium
D
cuboidal epithelium
12. A patient is unable to move his left hand, but brain scans show no damage. Which part of the nervous system is most likely to be affected?
A
Autonomic nervous system
B
Peripheral nervous system
C
Central nervous system
D
Parasympathetic nervous system
13. Which of the following is an example of uniform circular motion?
A
A train moving on a straight track
B
A car moving on a straight road
C
A stone dropped from a height
D
The Moon revolving around the Earth
14. What is the role of sulphuric acid in the anodising process of aluminium?
A
It dissolves aluminium completely.
B
It acts as an electrolyte to help form a thicker oxide layer.
C
It prevents oxidation of aluminium.
D
It reacts with aluminium to form aluminium chloride.
15. Which of the following techniques is used for vegetative propagation in plants?
A
Cutting
B
Fertilisation
C
Pollination
D
Seed dispersal
16. Cyclohexane is best classified as which type of organic compound?
A
A saturated alicyclic compound composed of six carbon atoms in a ring
B
A branched hydrocarbon with one or more unsaturated carbon bonds
C
An aromatic compound containing a delocalised π -electron ring system
D
An organic aldehyde consisting of a linear chain of six carbon atoms
17. A force of 7 N acts on an object and displaces it through 8 m in the direction of the force. What is the work done in this case?
A
56 J
B
15 Nm
C
56 N
D
7 J
18. What is the formula unit mass of ZnO (zinc oxide)?
A
97 u
B
65 u
C
81 u
D
16 u
19. If two resistors are connected in series, then which of the following statements is correct regarding the equivalent resistance of the circuit?
A
It will increase at first and then will decrease.
B
It will increase.
C
It will decrease.
D
It will remain same.
20. In which of the following reactions do two compounds combine to form a new compound?
A
CaO + CO ₂ → CaCO ₃
B
Na + Cl ₂ → NaCl
C
H ₂ + Cl ₂ → HCl
D
C + O ₂ → CO ₂
21. What is the correct path of the egg in the female reproductive system?
A
Uterus → Ovary → Fallopian tube
B
Fallopian tube → Ovary → Uterus
C
Ovary → Fallopian tube → Uterus
D
Ovary → Vagina → Uterus
22. Sounds of single frequency and mixture of several frequencies are known as ______________, respectively.
A
noise and tone
B
note and tone
C
tone and note
D
tone and noise
23. Which of the following describes reproduction involving only one parent and no gametes?
A
Internal fertilisation in mammals
B
Fertilisation in frogs
C
Seed formation in flowering plants
D
Binary fission in Amoeba
24. Which of the following structures are made up of nervous tissue?
A
Kidneys and liver
B
Lungs and heart
C
Bones and muscles
D
Brain, spinal cord and nerves
25. An item is sold for ₹6,500 after two successive discounts of 35% and 20%. What is the marked price (in ₹) of the item?
A
12,560
B
12,500
C
12,435
D
12,674
26. The expenditure of Sudha is 200% more than her savings. If her expenditure decreases by 10% and savings increase by 34%, then by what percentage does her income increase?
A
3%
B
1%
C
4%
D
6%
27. Find the smallest number which when increased by 10 is completely divisible by 12, 15, 18 and 20.
A
200
B
180
C
190
D
170
28. Ramesh bought an article for ₹5,000 and sold it to Suresh at a profit of 20%. Suresh then sold it further at a loss of 10%. For how much did Suresh sell the article?
A
₹5,800
B
₹5,600
C
₹5,200
D
₹5,400
29. The mode of the observations 21, 29, 35, 24, 25, 33, 24, 23, 26, 28, 35, 27, 20, 35 and 20 is: 4288
A
24
B
21
C
35
D
29
30. The amount on a sum of ₹4,800 at 15% per annum compound interest, compounded annually, in 2 years will be:
A
₹6,348
B
₹6,836
C
₹7,194
D
₹6,717
31. The price of a branded pen is ₹180 and that of a pencil is ₹3.50. If the total price of x branded pens and y pencils is ₹935 and x + y = 15, then what is the value of (x 2 + y 2 )?
A
125
B
181
C
164
D
205
32. In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at the point T (inside the quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 36°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 3 : 5, then what is the difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?
A
18°
B
21°
C
25°
D
22°
33. The monthly incomes of two friends Mukund and Sachin are in the ratio 5 : 9 respectively and each of them saves ₹45,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly expenditure is 1 : 3, then find the monthly income of Mukund (in ₹).
A
74,000
B
75,000
C
1,05,000
D
76,000
34. Simplify: [(9x + 4y) 2 − (9x − 4y) 2 ] ÷ 24x
A
12xy
B
6y
C
16x
D
8x
35. Find the single discount (approximately) equal to three consecutive discounts of 6%, 5% and 11%.
A
20.52%
B
21.86%
C
21.73%
D
23.23%
36.
A
5842.2
B
5812.2
C
5832.2
D
5821.2
37. ₹5,575 is divided among X, Y and Z in such a way that if ₹85, ₹65 and ₹61 is deducted from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 5:11:20. Find the difference between the original shares of Y and Z.
A
₹1,191
B
₹1,241
C
₹1,337
D
₹1,491
38. A train passes a station platform in 60 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 40 seconds. If the speed of the train is 63 km/hr, calculate the length of the platform.
A
350 metres
B
400 metres
C
550 metres
D
300 metres
39. The distance between points A and B is 933 km. Namit travels from A to B at a speed of 70 km/hr and returns at a speed of 111 km/hr. Calculate Namit’s average speed for the entire journey (rounded off to two decimal places).
A
85.86 km/hr
B
94.58 km/hr
C
88.58 km/hr
D
81.26 km/hr
40. Find the ratio between the fourth proportional of 4, 8 and 19 to the mean proportional of 9 and 4.
A
22 : 7
B
19 : 3
C
19 : 4
D
16 : 9
41. A camp has provisions for 20 pupils for 12 days. In how many days will the same provisions be used up, if the strength of the camp is increased to 80 pupils?
A
2
B
4
C
6
D
3
42. The product of the present ages of Ram and Lalith is 216 years, and their age ratio is 6 :
A
24 years
B
18 years
C
36 years
D
30 years
43.
A
80 cm
B
169 cm
C
13 cm
D
26 cm
44. Pipes A and B can fill an empty cistern in 65 minutes and 26 minutes, respectively. Both Pipe A and Pipe B are opened together. After how much time should Pipe B be turned off so that the empty cistern is completely filled in a total of 30 minutes?
A
15 minutes
B
20 minutes
C
14 minutes
D
10 minutes
45. The average of 7 numbers is 23. If each number is decreased by 7, what will the new average be?
A
9
B
7
C
23
D
16
46. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 2, 4 and 4 days, respectively. How long (in days) will they take to do thrice the same work, working together?
A
9
B
4
C
6
D
3
47. Mr. Akte ranked 54 th from the top and 19 th from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in his class?
A
70
B
72
C
73
D
68
48. Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 8 4 1 7 2 6 5 1 6 7 8 8 5 9 4 6 1 6 8 8 8 3 5 2 6 7 8 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
5
B
4
C
3
D
6
49. Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right. (Left) 6 5 8 8 5 4 7 7 4 2 7 9 2 2 5 7 4 8 8 2 1 8 9 (Right) How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
A
Two
B
Three
C
One
D
None
50. RL 12 is related to VQ 16 in a certain way. In the same way, NH 15 is related to RM 19. To which of the given options is IC 24 related, following the same logic?
A
MH 28
B
LG 29
C
KJ 28
D
KH 29
51. In a certain code language, ‘bowl tin leaf’ is coded as ‘ef cz bi’ and ‘leaf mode theme’ is coded as ‘cz nx an’. How is ‘leaf’ coded in that language?
A
cz
B
nx
C
ef
D
bi
52. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 33 −15 ÷ 6 + 120 × 8 = ?
A
108
B
112
C
120
D
115
53. Oren starts from Point A and drives 13 km towards the East. He then takes a left turn, drives 6 km, turns left and drives 17 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 13 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
A
7 km to the North
B
8 km to the South
C
8 km to the North
D
7 km to the South
54. What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 71 ÷ 9 + 192 × 16 − 41 = ?
A
619
B
668
C
523
D
591
55. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (14, 14.4, 13.7) (32, 32.4, 31.7)
A
(63, 63.4, 61.7)
B
(46, 46.4, 44.7)
C
(25, 25.4, 24.7)
D
(78, 78.4, 75.7) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
56. 35 40 30 45 25 ? 1105
A
50
B
55
C
45
D
60
57. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) ? % 4 5 % & ^ ? \ \ 4 $ % & 5 4 / 4 % ^ 7 (Right) How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A
Three
B
One
C
Two
D
None
58. Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the following series to make it logically complete? YCG 18 HLP 23 QUY 28 ZDH 33 ?
A
IRB 37
B
INP 38
C
IMQ 38
D
ILP 37
59. After walking 20 metres north from point A, Jane turns right and walks another 15 metres. Then she turns right again and walks 50 metres to stop at point B. In which direction is point A with respect to point B?
A
West
B
South-west
C
North-west
D
East
60. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
RQN
B
NMJ
C
XXT
D
CBY
61. A, B, C, D and E are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. B is sitting third to the right of C. A is sitting third to the left of C. D and A are immediate neighbours. Who is to the immediate left of C?
A
D
B
A
C
B
D
E
62. Seven boxes, L, M, N, O, Q, R and S, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the same order. Only L is kept above Q. Only three boxes are kept between L and R. Only O is kept below N. S is kept immediately above M. Which box is kept second above M?
A
N
B
O
C
Q
D
L
63. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
LGJ
B
MHK
C
PKN
D
RMQ
64. Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 7 1 3 4 7 5 1 3 6 6 7 9 5 9 6 7 8 1 3 7 3 (Right) How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a perfect square and also immediately followed by an odd digit? (NOTE: 1 is also a perfect square)
A
3
B
1
C
2
D
4
65. If ‘+’ means ‘subtraction’, ‘−’ means ‘multiplication’, ‘×’ means ‘division’, and ‘÷’ means ‘addition’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 25 – 6 ÷ 4 + 16 × 4 ÷ 16 + 22 = ?
A
146
B
144
C
145
D
142
66. Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. KIH−DBA OML−HFE
A
TRQ−MKJ
B
TQO−MKJ
C
TRQ−LKI
D
TQO−LJI
67. In a certain code language, ‘BACK’ is coded as ‘8561’ and ‘TACK’ is coded as ‘6458’. What is the code for ‘T’ in that language?
A
1
B
5
C
6
D
4
68. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All pilots are captains. All captains are drivers. Some drivers are teachers. Conclusions (I) All pilots are drivers. (II) Some teachers are pilots.
A
Only conclusion (II) follows.
B
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D
Only conclusion (I) follows.
69. In a certain code language, A ± B means ‘A is the wife of B’, A * B means ‘A is the daughter of B’, A ₹ B means ‘A is the father of B’ and A # B means ‘A is the brother of B’. How is D related to O if 'D ± R # A * C ₹ O’?
A
Father's mother
B
Mother
C
Wife
D
Brother's wife
70. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 100, 97, 91, 82, 70, ?
A
55
B
53
C
54
D
52
71. Seven friends, B, C, D, T, U, V and W, are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only two people sit between V and D. Only U sits to the right of T. Only one person sits between D and T. C sits at some place to the right of B but at some place to the left of W. How many people sit between W and B?
A
Four
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
72. XBYA is related to CGDF in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ZDAC is related to EIFH. To which of the given options is BFCE related, following the same logic?
A
GKGJ
B
GKHJ
C
GLGK
D
GJGJ
73. Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. D sits to the immediate left of F. C sits third to the left of B. F is an immediate neighbour of C. E sits second to the right of C. A sits to the immediate left of E. Who sits at the extreme right end of the line?
A
E
B
A
C
B
D
F
74. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 48 56 71 93 122 ?
A
158
B
159
C
156
D
157
75. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? DER UVI LMZ CDQ ?
A
THU
B
HIT
C
TUH
D
THI
76. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All balls are hens. All rabbits are hens. Conclusions: (I) Some balls are rabbits. (II) Some hens are rabbits.
A
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
B
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
C
Only conclusion (II) follows
D
Only conclusion (I) follows
77. In May 2025, which advanced research facility was inaugurated by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) with the aim to further strengthen indigenous quantum capabilities for strategic and defence applications?
A
Quantum Defence Lab, Hyderabad
B
Bharat Quantum Institute, Pune
C
Quantum Technology Research Centre, Delhi
D
National Quantum Hub, Bengaluru
78. Which of the following political parties announced a nationwide protest on November 18, 2025, against rising atrocities on marginalized groups in India?
A
Bharatiya Janata Party
B
Communist Party of India
C
Aam Aadmi Party
D
Indian National Congress
79. The National Red List Roadmap launched in 2025 aims primarily to _________.
A
Assess and monitor the conservation status of India’s flora and fauna
B
Increase and expand the country’s overall forest cover by 10% by 2030
C
Promote eco-tourism across national parks
D
Reduce carbon emissions from industries
80. What is the name of the initiative launched by the Punjab government to ensure women’s safety and dignity in 2025?
A
Project Suraksha
B
Mission Shakti
C
Project Hifazat
D
Mission Vatsalya
81. Who among the following is the Chairman of the committee constituted to examine the provision of "One Nation One Election" in India?
A
Keshav Chand
B
Jagdeesh Dhankhad
C
Pratibha Patil
D
Ram Nath Kovind
82. Who was awarded the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award, the highest honour in Indian cinema, at the 70 th National Film Awards ceremony on 8 October 2024?
A
Rekha
B
Amitabh Bachchan
C
Mithun Chakraborty
D
Vinod Mehra
83. Which Ukrainian city suffered a deadly Russian missile strike in mid-June 2025?
A
Lviv
B
Kharkiv
C
Kyiv
D
Dnipro
84. Which state hosted the Khelo India Youth Games, 2025?
A
Maharashtra
B
Bihar
C
Tamil Nadu
D
Uttar Pradesh
85. Where was the 2025 Hyundai Archery World Cup Grand Final held in October 2025?
A
USA
B
Italy
C
China
D
Japan
86. From March 9 to 12, 2025, the second part of India's fifth Khelo India Winter Games was conducted in which of the following places?
A
Gulmarg
B
Auli
C
Shimla
D
Leh
87. Which of the following bilateral agreements was signed between India and Singapore and marked the upgrade of their relationship by exchanging several MoUs in areas such as semiconductors, digital technologies and skills development?
A
India-Singapore Strategic Economic Cooperation Agreement
B
India-Singapore Indo-Pacific Security Treaty
C
India-Singapore Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
D
India-Singapore Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement
88. Who is the author of the Lithuanian novel, ‘The Last Day’, which was translated into Hindi by the Sahitya Akademi in October 2025 as part of celebrating literary exchange and cultural collaboration?
A
Vincas Mykolaitis-Putinas
B
Jurga Ivanauskait ė
C
Jaroslavas Melnikas
D
Balys Sruoga
89. What type of bridge is the new Pamban Rail Bridge, inaugurated in April 2025?
A
Cable-stayed bridge
B
Vertical lift bridge
C
Arch bridge
D
Suspension bridge
90. What happens if the accused minister (Prime Minister / Chief Minister) is granted bail within 30 days according to the Constitution (130 th Amendment) Bill, 2025?
A
They are removed from office permanently.
B
No action is taken; they can continue in office.
C
They are suspended from their post for 30 more days.
D
They are automatically disqualified for 5 years.
91. Which country became the first team to qualify for the 2026 FIFA World Cup (excluding host nations)?
A
Iran
B
South Korea
C
Australia
D
Japan
92. The Railways ordered which safety feature to be installed at stations in Pune in June 2025?
A
Body scanning machines
B
Surveillance camera systems
C
Reserved coaches for women
D
Panic alert buttons
93. What is the name of DRDO's homegrown multi-layered defense system, showcased for the first time at the 2025 Republic Day parade and Aero India 2025?
A
Vayu-Prahar Kavach
B
Rakshak-Suraksha Kavach
C
Surya-Vajra
D
Agni-Shakti
94. Which of the following was released by the Reserve Bank of India in January 2025 to streamline credit information frameworks?
A
External Borrowing Guidelines, 2025
B
Credit Information Reporting Directions, 2025
C
Priority Sector Lending Master Directions, 2025
D
Private Sector Credit Guidelines, 2025
95. What is India’s rank in the WEF Energy Transition Index, 2025?
A
63rd
B
75th
C
71st
D
68th
96. According to Union Budget 2025–26, approximately _______ was allocated for the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in India.
A
₹1,720 crore
B
₹2,958 crore
C
₹3,413 crore
D
₹2,672 crore "
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