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Group D — Test 53
00:00
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01. A force (F) of 60 N acts on a mass (m) of 6 kg. What will be the acceleration (a) produced by this force?
A
6.0 m/s2
B
0.10 m/s2
C
360.0 m/s2
D
10.0 m/s2
02. Name the scientist who defined elements as substances that CANNOT be broken down into simpler form by chemical reactions.
A
Robert Hookie
B
Antoine Laurent Lavoisier
C
Charles Darwin
D
Robert boyle
03. Which of the following is NOT a function of the stigma in the Hibiscus flower?
A
Facilitating pollen tube growth
B
Receiving pollen grains
C
Producing male germ cells
D
Providing a sticky surface Which of the following is the correct sequence in extraction of metals from
04. According to Newton’s Third Law of Motion, which of the following statements is true?
A
Action and reaction cancel each other out because they act on one body.
B
Action and reaction are equal and opposite but act on two different bodies.
C
Action and reaction are unequal and act on the same body.
D
Action and reaction act on the same body and are equal in magnitude.
05. Which of the following enzymes is present in saliva?
A
Salivary Protease
B
Salivary Lipase
C
Salivary Amylase
D
No enzyme
06. Which of the following statements about sound propagation is true?
A
Sound is the fastest in gases, slower in liquids and the slowest in solids.
B
Sound is the fastest in solids, slower in liquids and the slowest in gases.
C
Sound travels at the same speed in all mediums.
D
Sound can travel in a vacuum.
07. Testes are located outside the abdominal cavity, called ________.
A
Scrotum
B
Ureter
C
Penis
D
Bladder
08. The gravitational force between the Earth and a body of mass ‘m’ kg is ‘F’ N. What will be the gravitational force between the body and the Earth if the mass of the body is increased to ‘4m’ kg? (Keep all the other parameters the same)
A
F/4 N
B
F/2 N
C
F N
D
4F N
09. What type of chemical bond is typically formed when a metal reacts with a non-metal?
A
Covalent bond
B
Ionic bond
C
Metallic bond
D
Hydrogen bond
10. What is the primary function of the kidneys in human beings?
A
To filter nitrogenous waste materials from the blood
B
To absorb oxygen and release carbon dioxide
C
To regulate digestion and nutrient absorption
D
To transport glucose and hormones throughout the body
11. Rear-view mirrors of vehicles are usually __________.
A
parabolic mirrors
B
convex mirrors
C
concave mirrors
D
plane mirrors
12. Quickly pulling a hand back on touching a hot object is an example of ________.
A
Conditioned action
B
Hormonal action
C
Reflex action
D
Thinking action
13. Consider the following statements and select the correct option. Statement A: Washing soda is obtained by heating baking soda strongly. Statement B: It is used in glass, soap and paper industries.
A
Both statements A and B are correct.
B
Both statements A and B are incorrect.
C
Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.
D
Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.
14. Which of the following is a colloidal solution?
A
Milk
B
Sand in Water
C
Salt Water
D
Sugar Solution
15. Carbohydrates produced in photosynthesis but not immediately used are stored as ________ in plants.
A
cellulose
B
protein
C
starch
D
glucose
16. Which of the following is detected by gustatory receptors in our body?
A
Sound
B
Light
C
Smell
D
Taste
17. The symbol of an element represents which of the following?
A
One atom of the element only
B
Atomic number and mass number
C
One mole of the element
D
The full name of the element
18. In a schematic electric circuit diagram, how is a voltmeter typically represented when connected to measure potential difference?
A
A circle with a ‘V’ inside, connected in parallel
B
A square with a ‘V’ inside, connected in parallel
C
A circle with an ‘A’ inside, connected in series
D
A rectangle with an ‘R’ inside, connected in series
19. The twinkling of stars is more pronounced when _______.
A
the star is near the horizon
B
the star is at the zenith
C
the sky is cloudy
D
the moon is bright
20. What gas is typically released when ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate?
A
Carbon dioxide gas
B
Hydrogen gas
C
Oxygen gas
D
Methane gas
21. Which of the following gives the correct relation between the work done (W) in terms of force (F) acting on the body and the displacement (S) of the body in the same direction as the force?
A
W = F + S
B
W = F/S
C
W = F × S
D
W = F − S
22. The magnetic field is strongest:
A
near the conductor
B
equidistant from the conductor
C
outside a solenoid
D
far from the conductor
23. Which two physical properties allow metals to be drawn into thin wires and beaten into thin sheets, respectively?
A
High melting point and solid state
B
Sonorous and conductivity
C
Ductility and malleability
D
Lustre and hardness
24. Which of the following contraceptive devices is placed in the uterus to prevent pregnancy?
A
Condom
B
Oral pills
C
Copper-T
D
Hormonal patch
25. The sides of a triangle are 105 cm, 137 cm, and 88 cm. What is its area (in cm 2 )?
A
4573
B
4634
C
4620
D
4598
26. What is the smallest natural number that should be added to 5023, such that a remainder of 5 is left when the resulting number is divided by each of the numbers 20, 98, 35 and 21?
A
850
B
846
C
862
D
855
27. 11125
A
54 minutes
B
70 minutes
C
60 minutes
D
58 minutes
28. Three cubes of edges 3 cm, 4 cm, and 5 cm are melted and formed into a single cube. What is the percentage change in the total surface area after melting and recasting?
A
22% increase
B
22% decrease
C
28% increase
D
28% decrease
29. Amit and Rahul have a total of ₹50. If Amit has ₹16 more than Rahul, then find the amount with Rahul.
A
₹19
B
₹16
C
₹20
D
₹17
30. If the marked price of a towel is 85% more than its cost price and a discount of 20% is announced on it, then find the profit percentage.
A
49%
B
48%
C
45%
D
47%
31. The present ages of A and B are in the ratio of 7 : 6. Eight years hence, the ratio of their ages will be 8 : 7. Find the present age of B.
A
48 years
B
40 years
C
24 years
D
36 years
32. A man receives ₹7,420 per month as salary. He saves 35% of his salary every month. His expenditure per month is:
A
₹4,920
B
₹4,857
C
₹4,724
D
₹4,823
33. The arithmetic mean of the observations 64, 11, 66, 98, 25, 17, 50, 75 and 62 is:
A
52
B
56
C
44
D
45
34. If the mode of a data exceeds its mean by 77.7, then the mode exceeds the median by _____. (Use empirical formula to find the answer) 4234
A
52.2
B
51.8
C
47.8
D
58.8
35. Two trains, 297 m and 243 m, in length are running in opposite directions. The first runs at the rate of 42 km/hr and the second at the rate of 66 km/hr. How long will they take to cross each other?
A
18 seconds
B
8 seconds
C
9 seconds
D
13 seconds
36. How many numbers up to 200 are divisible by 4 and 3 both?
A
16
B
10
C
12
D
14
37. If the cost price of 60 guavas is equal to the selling price of 45 guavas, what is the profit percentage (rounded off to 2 decimal places)?
A
31.33%
B
32.33%
C
34.33%
D
33.33%
38. The amount on a sum of ₹1,000 at the rate of 10% per annum compound interest, compounded annually, in 2 years will be:
A
₹1,240
B
₹1,220
C
₹1,640
D
₹1,210
39. Pipe A can fill a tank in 12 minutes, while pipe B can empty the completely filled tank in 24 minutes. Initially, pipe A is opened and after 4 minutes, pipe B is also opened. In how much time (in minutes) will the remaining tank be filled completely?
A
16
B
35
C
28
D
18
40. The expenditure of Sudha is 125% more than her savings. If her expenditure decreases by 14% and savings increase by 38%, then by what percentage does her income increase?
A
3%
B
6%
C
2%
D
5%
41. P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 10 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern with water in 20 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same cistern with water?
A
11
B
6
C
10
D
5
42. A total profit of ₹25,000 is to be distributed amongst P, Q and R such that P : Q = 2 : 1 and Q : R = 11 : 7. The share (in ₹) of R in the profit is:
A
4,375
B
4,225
C
4,275
D
4,325
43. Find the single equivalent discount (rounded off to two decimal places) for successive discounts of 16%, 29% and 4%.
A
41.75%
B
44.77%
C
41.18%
D
42.75%
44. In a quadrilateral ABCD, ∠ A = 88° and ∠ B = 81°. The bisectors of ∠ C and ∠ D meet at O. What is the measure of ∠ DOC?
A
96°
B
99°
C
81.5°
D
84.5°
45. If the third proportional of 64 and Z is 4, then what is the value of Z?
A
16
B
18
C
17
D
14
46. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All hammers are anvils. All anvils are metals. All metals are plastics. Conclusions: (I) All hammers are plastics. (II) Some plastics are anvils.
A
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
B
Only conclusion (I) follows.
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D
Only conclusion (II) follows.
47. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 382 392 400 406 410 ? 4224
A
416
B
411
C
413
D
412
48. In a certain code language, ‘A ± B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’, ‘A * B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’, ‘A ₹ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ and ‘A # B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’. How is D related to O if ‘D * R ₹ A # C ± O’?
A
Mother's sister
B
Wife's sister
C
Wife
D
Sister
49. Kartik ranked 19 th from the top and 54 th from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in his class?
A
73
B
70
C
71
D
72
50. Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 7 4 3 1 9 6 7 2 3 8 1 8 8 4 1 1 9 3 5 2 3 8 1 8 6 1 4 (Right) How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
A
7
B
5
C
6
D
8
51. Six people, L, M, N, O, P and Q, are sitting in a row, facing towards north. N is sitting at the leftmost end of the row. Only 3 people are sitting between N and Q. L is sitting second right to P. M is sitting second right to L. Based on the given arrangement, three of the following four are alike and hence form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that group?
A
NO
B
PL
C
OP
D
LM
52. Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All atoms are protons. Some protons are neutrons. Conclusions: (I) All atoms are neutrons. (II) No neutron is a proton.
A
Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
B
Only conclusion II follows.
C
Only conclusion I follows.
D
Both conclusions I and II follow.
53. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 10 C 6 B 2 D 45 A 5 = ?
A
15
B
17
C
13
D
18
54. Varun starts from Point M and drives 8 km towards the south. He then takes a left turn, drives 10 km, turns left and drives 3 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 5 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 7 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 15 km and stops at Point Y. How far (shortest distance) and in which direction is Point Y with respect to Point M? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified).
A
12 km towards east
B
12 km towards south
C
8 km towards east
D
8 km towards south
55. MIDQ is related to CYTG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, YUPC is related to OKFS. To which of the given options is UQLY related, following the same logic?
A
KGHY
B
KOLP
C
KOBI
D
KGBO
56. In a certain code language, ‘error mall bat’ is coded as ‘yr uh cl’ and ‘gap error unit’ is coded as ‘uh at nk’. How is ‘error’ coded in that language?
A
uh
B
cl
C
at
D
yr
57. In a certain code language, ‘what you have’ is coded as ‘nq jl mk’ and ‘have you been’ is coded as ‘rs nq jl’. How is ‘been’ coded in that language?
A
jl
B
nq
C
rs
D
mk
58. NMGT is related to THKQ in a certain way. In the same way, LSQR is related to RNUO. To which of the given options is GIUH related, following the same logic?
A
MDYE
B
NEYD
C
NDXD
D
MEXE
59. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 72 A 4 C 6 B 9 D 20 A 2 C 88 A 8 D 15 = ?
A
42
B
88
C
58
D
75
60. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 358 657 524 493 249 (Right) (Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) (NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.) What will be the resultant if second digit of the highest number is added to the third digit of lowest number? 10668
A
12
B
14
C
11
D
13
61. Sunil starts from point A and drives 64 km towards the west. He then takes a left turn, drives 63 km, turns left and drives 67 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 78 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
A
17 km to the north
B
16 km to the north
C
15 km to the south
D
14 km to the south
62. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
CI - EL
B
JP - LR
C
IO - KQ
D
NT - PV
63. Six teachers — Judith, Anil, Myriam, Bina, Teresa and Jason — are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. Judith is sitting second to the right of Anil. Anil is an immediate neighbour of both Myriam and Bina. Teresa is sitting second to the left of Myriam. Jason is sitting second to the left of Anil. Who is sitting between Jason and Judith, when counted from the left of Jason?
A
Anil
B
Teresa
C
Bina
D
Myriam
64. Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given below. Both triads follow the same pattern. JS-LU-OQ LU-NW-QS
A
NW-PY-SV
B
MW-PZ-SV
C
MW-PY-SV
D
NW-PY-SU
65. Each of the digits in the number 8325716 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. The position of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the original number?
A
One
B
None
C
Two
D
Three
66. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
YZ−DE
B
MN−QU
C
NO−ST
D
RS−WX
67. Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. F sits to the immediate left of A. C sits third to the left of D. C is an immediate neighbour of A. B sits to the immediate left of E. How many people sit between E and C?
A
Three
B
Two
C
None
D
One
68. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? HIE 50 GHD 62 FGC 74 EFB 86 ?
A
DDZ 97
B
DEA 98
C
DMW 97
D
DFZ 98
69. Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 2 4 2 7 4 8 9 6 9 1 1 2 4 5 7 5 2 3 1 3 9 5 4 4 7 9 3 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there (from left to right) each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number? 6625
A
2
B
4
C
5
D
3
70. Which numbers should come in place of the question marks (?) in the same sequence to make the series logically complete? 789 779 769 ? 749 ? 729
A
759 and 739, respectively
B
759 and 729, respectively
C
769 and 739, respectively
D
749 and 739, respectively
71. Mr. Hepa ranked 22 nd from the bottom and 57 th from the top in his class. How many students are there in his class?
A
77
B
76
C
78
D
75
72. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? ASE QIU GYK WOA ?
A
MEO
B
MOI
C
MRW
D
MEQ
73. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Left) 9 3 8 7 9 4 8 6 2 5 9 3 6 5 1 2 6 1 5 8 3 9 9 6 8 8 3 9 (Right) How many such perfect squares are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number? (NOTE: 1 is also a perfect square.)
A
One
B
Three
C
Two
D
More than three
74. In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operation(s) to the first number. Select the number-pair in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) 17, 33 13, 25
A
54, 108
B
31, 61
C
74, 146
D
23, 35
75. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 3, 5, 9, 17, 33, ?
A
57
B
65
C
59
D
62
76. Which of the following prestigious Indian cinema awards was conferred upon Mohanlal in September 2025 in recognition of his iconic contribution?
A
Dadasaheb Phalke Award, 2023
B
Filmfare Lifetime Achievement Award, 2024
C
Padma Shri, 2025
D
National Film Award for Best Actor, 2025
77. Which defence exercise involved the French carrier Charles de Gaulle in 2025?
A
TROPEX
B
Dharma Guardian
C
Varuna
D
Tiger Triumph
78. Which among the following organisations launched the ‘Scheme for Promoting Registration of Employers and Employees’ (SPREE 2025)?
A
Ministry of Finance
B
National Institute for Transforming India
C
Employees' State Insurance Corporation
D
Employees' Provident Fund Organisation
79. Which author won the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar for his novel, ‘Ram C/O Anandhi’, in June 2025?
A
Akhil P Dharmajan
B
Vikas Swarup
C
Parvati Tirkey
D
Kirtida Brahmbhatt
80. Why was Acko General Insurance fined ₹1 crore by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) in May 2025?
A
Payments to an unregistered intermediary
B
Mis-selling of ULIPs
C
Denial of health insurance claims
D
Failure to meet solvency ratios
81. The AI Centre of Excellence for Education announced in Union Budget 2025 is intended to benefit which sector the most?
A
Education
B
Manufacturing
C
Agriculture
D
Tourism
82. What was the theme of the first Global Conference on Manuscript Heritage held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, in 2025?
A
Preserving India’s Ancient Wisdom through Heritage Studies
B
Reclaiming India’s Knowledge Legacy through Manuscript Heritage
C
Reviving Asian Manuscript Traditions through Shared Heritage
D
Digital Archives for Cultural Knowledge through Heritage Tools
83. India's SDG ranking in the 10th Sustainable Development Report was released by:
A
World Economic Forum Report
B
World Bank Report
C
International Monetary Fund Report
D
UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network
84. Who among the following chaired the Parliamentary Consultative Committee meeting on ‘Disaster Management and Capacity Building’ in August 2025?
A
Narendra Modi
B
Amit Shah
C
Nirmala Sitharaman
D
Rajnath Singh
85. According to the October 2025 Monetary Policy Report of the Reserve Bank of India, the revised GDP growth forecast for India for FY 2025–26 is _____.
A
5.8%
B
5.5%
C
6.5%
D
6.8%
86. Which international badminton player became world No. 1 in 2025, marking a first in his country’s history?
A
Kunlavut Vitidsarn
B
Kodai Naraoka
C
Lakshya Sen
D
Loh Kean Yew
87. Which award did Pakistani cricketer Sana Mir receive in June 2025?
A
Asia Woman Cricketer of the Year
B
ICC Hall of Fame
C
ICC Best Bowler Award
D
PCB Lifetime Achievement Award
88. What is the name of the portal launched by the Government of India to support gender- responsive planning and budgeting?
A
Gender Budgeting Knowledge Hub
B
Women’s Finance Portal
C
Gender Planning & Budget Portal
D
Gender Equality Resource Hub
89. India’s first Cheetah Safari began in October 2025 at which national park?
A
Bandhavgarh National Park
B
Kuno National Park
C
Kanha National Park
D
Satpura National Park
90. What was the esteemed category of civilian honours conferred upon legendary Indian hockey player PR Sreejesh by President Droupadi Murmu at Rashtrapati Bhavan in April 2025?
A
Gallantry Awards
B
National Sports Awards
C
Padma Awards
D
Bharat Ratna
91. Which of the following platforms are integrated under the National Cooperation Policy, 2025, to promote digital commerce for cooperatives?
A
e-NAM (National Agriculture Market) and e-Shram Portal
B
GeM (Government e-Marketplace) and ONDC (Open Network for Digital Commerce)
C
RuPay and UPI (Unified Payments Interface)
D
GSTN and DigiLocker
92. In the 56 th meeting of Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) held in August 2025, after assessing the current and evolving macroeconomic situation, the MPC voted to maintain the policy repo rate at:
A
5.50%
B
8.50%
C
5.40%
D
6.40%
93. Which country's deaf cricket team won a historic 5-match series against Trinidad & Tobago in 2025?
A
Pakistan
B
England
C
Australia
D
India
94. In the 2025 Kho Kho World Cup, the Indian men’s team secured the first-ever championship title by defeating which opponent in the final match?
A
Pakistan
B
Nepal
C
Bangladesh
D
Sri Lanka
95. Which countries are collaborating for the Chandrayaan-5 mission, as announced by ISRO in March 2025?
A
India and Japan
B
India and the United States
C
India and Russia
D
India and China "
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