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Group D — Test 6
00:00
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01. Which of the following examples best illustrates the real-life role of lysosomes in action?
A
A green leaf making food by photosynthesis
B
A red blood cell delivering oxygen to muscles
C
A white blood cell swallowing and breaking down harmful bacteria
D
A nerve cell passing signals to help you feel pain
02. Rutherford’s α -particle scattering experiment led to the discovery of which of the following?
A
Neutrons
B
Protons
C
Electrons
D
Nucleus
03. What is the approximate pH of a salt solution formed from a strong acid and a strong base?
A
Can be less than or greater than 7 depending on temperature
B
Equal to 7
C
Less than 7
D
Greater than 7
04. A student cuts the style of a flower before pollination. What will be the most likely outcome?
A
The ovule will turn into a seed.
B
The pollen tube will grow more quickly.
C
Fertilisation will not occur.
D
Pollination will be faster.
05. What is the main function of the nucleus in an eukaryotic cell?
A
Producing energy
B
Directing life processes of the cell
C
Digesting waste
D
Acting as a storage unit for food
06. Which of the following increases when the amplitude of a wave increases?
A
Speed
B
Wavelength
C
Frequency
D
Energy of the wave
07. The process of swelling or shrinking in plant cells, leading to changes in shape and movement, is directly caused by which factor?
A
The formation of new protein structures.
B
The alteration of their internal water content.
C
The stiffening of their cell walls.
D
The rapid breakdown of cellulose.
08. What type of reaction occurs when barium chloride reacts with sodium sulfate?
A
Combination
B
Decomposition
C
Double displacement
D
Oxidation
09. The resistance of a metallic conductor increases with:
A
Increase in temperature
B
Decrease in length
C
Decrease in temperature
D
Increase in cross-sectional area
10. Metals found at the bottom of the activity series (e.g., gold, silver, platinum) are typically found in nature in which state?
A
As sulphides that require calcination
B
As carbonates that require roasting
C
As highly reactive oxides
D
In their free state
11. To demonstrate the relationship between inertia and mass, a student compares the difficulty of kicking a football versus kicking a stone of equal size. What fundamental principle justifies the greater difficulty and potential injury associated with kicking the stone?
A
The force applied to the stone is insufficient to overcome the centripetal force holding its atoms together.
B
The stone has lower surface friction, causing all force to be transmitted.
C
The stone is subject to the First Law of Motion, while the football is governed by the Second Law.
D
The stone possesses greater mass, which results in greater inertia, meaning it offers larger resistance to changing its state of rest.
12. Observe the following chemical reaction: H 2 S + I 2 → 2HI + S Which of the following statements correctly describes this redox reaction? Statements: I: Hydrogen sulphide undergoes oxidation to form sulphur. II: Iodine is reduced, producing hydrogen iodide.
A
Both Statement I and II are incorrect
B
Only Statement I is correct
C
Both Statement I and II are correct
D
Only Statement II is correct
13. Newton’s First Law of Motion is also called the law of:
A
force
B
inertia
C
acceleration
D
action and reaction
14. Which of the following is an example of potential energy?
A
A moving train
B
A rolling ball
C
A book kept on a table
D
A flowing river
15. How many daughter cells are formed during binary fission?
A
Two
B
Zero
C
One
D
Four
16. Which of the following organs releases growth hormone releasing factor, which stimulates the pituitary gland to release growth hormone?
A
Adrenal glands
B
Hypothalamus
C
Pancreas
D
Thymus
17. Which of the following statements is correct? Statement 1: The magnetic field lines produced around a straight current-carrying conductor form concentric circles centred along the wire. Statement 2: The direction of these magnetic field lines can be determined using the right-hand thumb rule.
A
Statement 1 is correct, but 2 is incorrect.
B
Statement 1 is incorrect, but 2 is correct.
C
Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
D
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
18. What is the defining characteristic of an unsaturated carbon compound?
A
It contains at least one double or triple bond between carbon atoms.
B
It always contains a functional group with oxygen.
C
It forms only cyclic structures.
D
All carbon atoms are linked by only single bonds.
19. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the image formed by a concave lens? (i) The image formed by a concave lens cannot be obtained on a screen. (ii) The image formed by a concave lens can be obtained on a screen. (iii) The image formed is always smaller in size in comparison to the size of the object. (iv) The image formed is always bigger in size in comparison to the size of the object.
A
Both (i) and (iv)
B
Both (ii) and (iii)
C
Both (i) and (iii)
D
Both (ii) and (iv)
20. The state of a substance whether it will be solid, liquid or gas is determined by:
A
b and c only
B
a, b and c
C
a and b only
D
a and c only
21. A housing society has started segregating waste into two bins – green for kitchen waste and blue for plastic, metal and glass. What is the main benefit of this practice?
A
It reduces the smell of garbage.
B
It increases the quantity of waste produced.
C
It makes waste collection faster.
D
It helps separate non-biodegradable from biodegradable waste.
22. What is the sequence of stages involved in the budding process of hydra?
A
Bud maturation → Bud initiation → Bud detachment → New individual
B
Bud initiation → Bud detachment → Bud maturation → New individual
C
Bud initiation → Bud maturation → Bud detachment → New individual
D
New individual → Bud maturation → Bud detachment → Bud initiation
23. When white light falls on a glass prism, out of all its constituent colours, violet colour undergoes maximum bending. Why?
A
Violet has minimum wavelength and hence minimum refractive index
B
Violet has maximum wavelength and hence minimum refractive index
C
Violet has minimum wavelength and hence maximum refractive index
D
Violet has maximum wavelength and hence maximum refractive index
24. Which of the following activities demonstrates the presence of spaces between particles of matter?
A
Compressing a gas
B
Heating a solid
C
Freezing a liquid
D
Dissolving sugar in water
25. Which of the following statements is true about gravitational force of the Earth?
A
It is independent of distance from Earth’s centre.
B
It acts away from the centre of Earth.
C
It depends on the mass of the object.
D
It is a non-central force.
26. After selling an article at a discount of 25%, the profit percentage obtained is 2%. What is the mark-up percentage?
A
40%
B
34%
C
38%
D
36%
27. The cost of a washing machine is 50% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the washing machine increases by 33% and that of the TV decreases by 13%, then what is the percentage change in the total cost of 4 washing machines and 2 TVs?
A
Decrease by 10%
B
Increase by 9.5%
C
Increase by 10%
D
Decrease by 7%
28. Navya and Bhavya can paint a house in 40 days and 60 days, respectively. If they work on alternate days, starting with Bhavya, in how many days can the duo complete painting that house?
A
49 days
B
48 days
C
45 days
D
50 days
29. Find the mode of the data 1, 11, 11, 8, 18, 8, 7, 7, 7, x, y, and 8, given that 3x + 7y = 42 and 7x + 3y = 58.
A
18
B
7
C
8
D
11
30. A father is 5 times as old as his son. If the sum of their ages is 54 years, how old is the son?
A
10 years
B
11 years
C
12 years
D
9 years
31. The price of oil is increased successively by 50% and then by 40%. What is the equivalent single percentage increase?
A
90%
B
75%
C
110%
D
100%
32. The area of a triangle is 61.5 m 2 . If one of its sides is 12.3 m, find the length of the perpendicular dropped on that side from the opposite vertex.
A
10 m
B
11 m
C
10.5 m
D
11.5 m
33. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 7?
A
7660778
B
7132951
C
6825907
D
7357306
34. The amount on a sum of ₹2,800 at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded annually, in 2 years will be:
A
₹3,274
B
₹3,388
C
₹3,604
D
₹2,647
35. If A : B = 1 : 3, B : C = 4 : 3 and C : D = 6 : 7, then A : B : C : D is:
A
8 : 22 : 18 : 21
B
6 : 24 : 18 : 21
C
8 : 24 : 16 : 21
D
8 : 24 : 18 : 21
36. What is the value of ?
A
0.6
B
0.5
C
0.4
D
0.2
37. A and B working together can do a piece of work in 6 days. B alone can do the same work in 9 days. How long (in days) will A alone take to do double the work?
A
39
B
18
C
37
D
36
38. A train, 1312 m long, is running at a speed of 54 m/s. If it takes 106 seconds to cross a tunnel, then find the length of the tunnel.
A
4412 m
B
4402 m
C
4413 m
D
4408 m
39. A sum of money is to be distributed among A, B, C and D in the ratio of 10 : 7 : 9 : 5. If C gets ₹334 more than B, then how much did A receive?
A
₹1,671
B
₹1,673
C
₹1,670
D
₹1,669
40. The present age of a father is twice the sum of the present ages of his two sons. After 20 years, the father's age will be equal to the sum of his sons’ ages. Find the present age of the father.
A
48 years
B
45 years
C
40 years
D
42 years
41. P is any point inside the rectangle ABCD. If PA = 85 cm, PB = 65 cm and PC = 5 cm, then the length of PD (in cm) is equal to:
A
51
B
55
C
58
D
53
42. Sushma purchased a used car for ₹1,20,000 and spent ₹28,500 on its repairs. She then sold it to her friend Sam for ₹1,38,600. What percentage did she gain or lose? (Round off your answer to two decimal places.)
A
6.67% loss
B
8.67% loss
C
6.67% gain
D
5.38% gain
43. The average of 6.5, 10.6, 19.7 and a is 12. The value of a is: 1640
A
13.2
B
10.2
C
12.2
D
11.2
44.
A
78
B
83
C
82
D
69
45. The monthly incomes of two friends, Kiran and Mahesh, are in the ratio 5 : 8 respectively, and each of them saves ₹72,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly expenditure is 2 : 4, find the monthly income of Kiran (in ₹).
A
2,52,000
B
1,80,000
C
1,79,000
D
1,81,000
46. The marked price of a wardrobe is ₹8,640, which is 35% above the cost price. It is sold at a discount of 20% on the marked price. Find the profit percentage.
A
6%
B
8%
C
10%
D
9%
47. In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’, A @ B means ‘A is the brother of B’, A - B means ‘A is the wife of B’, and A # B means ‘A is the father of B’. How is O related to V if ‘O + P - T # G @ V’?
A
Mother
B
Mother's mother
C
Mother's sister
D
Sister
48. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) % € € % 6 £ 3 & 1 £ 4 5 7 2 2 & & 9 & 8 8 * (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a number?
A
6
B
5
C
3
D
4
49. P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. U sits second to the right of R. Q sits second to the left of S. P is on the immediate left of Q. Who is sitting on the immediate left of T?
A
R
B
S
C
U
D
Q
50. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. D sits second to the left of B. E sits second to the right of F. C is on the immediate right of D. Who is sitting on the immediate left of A?
A
F
B
C
C
B
D
E
51. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following equation? 29 B 6 C 243 A 9 D 33 = ?
A
171
B
173
C
166
D
168
52. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some pipe are hose. All hose are tunnel. Conclusions: (I) Some pipe are tunnel. (II) All tunnel are hose.
A
Only conclusion (I) follows
B
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
C
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
D
Only conclusion (II) follows
53. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (59, 71, 55) (85, 97, 81)
A
(99, 111, 95)
B
(117, 129, 114)
C
(78, 90, 76)
D
(121, 133, 116)
54. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 29 49 69 89 109 ?
A
129
B
121
C
131
D
119
55. Karan starts from Point A and drives 12 km towards the North. He then takes a right turn, drives 6 km, then turns right and drives 16 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 8 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 4 km, and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
A
3 km to the west
B
3 km to the east
C
2 km to the east
D
2 km to the west
56. DGRZ is related to HNVG in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, TIHB is related to XPLI. To which of the given options is FDTW related, following the same logic?
A
JKOP
B
JKXD
C
JKXS
D
JXDE
57. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? BLS DNU FPW HRY ?
A
JSZ
B
ISZ
C
JTA
D
ITB
58. In a row of 47 students facing north, Neha is 21 st from the right end. If Kinjal is 8 th to the left of Neha, what is Kinjal's position from the left end of the line?
A
18th
B
17th
C
20th
D
19th
59. Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 8 7 1 7 8 2 9 6 7 4 7 8 8 9 3 3 2 8 7 9 8 (Right) How many such odd digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd digit and also immediately followed by an even digit? 4107
A
2
B
4
C
3
D
1
60. In a certain code language, ‘pig issue nod’ is coded as 'cd hx gj' and ‘love nod news’ is coded as ‘vn va hx’. How is ‘nod’ coded in the given language?
A
vn
B
hx
C
cd
D
gi
61. In a certain code language, ‘LOVE’ is coded as ‘2436’ and ‘VALE’ is coded as ‘3245’. What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
A
3
B
5
C
4
D
2
62. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster that does NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their positions in the letter-cluster.)
A
ECF
B
TRU
C
PNQ
D
GFH
63. If ‘E’ stands for ‘+’, ‘F’ stands for ‘-’, ‘G’ stands for ‘×’ and ‘H’ stands for ‘÷’, what will come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following equation? 45 G 3 E 28 H 7 F 8 = ?
A
133
B
129
C
131
D
135
64. NJOM is related to TPUS in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, PLQO is related to VRWU. To which of the following is RNSQ related, following the same logic?
A
XTWY
B
XTYW
C
TXWY
D
TXYW
65. In a row of 50 students facing North, Shruti is 23 rd from the left end. If Daksh is 17 th to the right of Shruti, what is Daksh's position from the right end of the line?
A
10th
B
9th
C
12th
D
11th
66. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 747 740 732 723 713 ? 3904
A
703
B
704
C
702
D
701
67. If + means ÷, − means ×, × means −, and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 639 + 9 × 6 − 44 ÷ 279 = ?
A
86
B
89
C
80
D
81
68. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). (Left) 6 1 5 6 8 5 5 7 7 9 9 5 7 4 9 7 6 1 9 2 6 7 6 3 7 4 9 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there (from left to right) each of which is immediately preceded by an even number and also immediately followed by an even number? 4394
A
1
B
0
C
2
D
3
69. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
RT – NM
B
EG – AB
C
JL – FE
D
DF – ZY
70. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 6 6 8 6 7 4 5 9 9 1 7 6 8 1 4 5 4 7 1 4 1 1 4 3 5 4 3 (Right) How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
2
B
3
C
1
D
0
71. Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given below. Both triads follow the same pattern. RK-NH-LO TM-PJ-NQ
A
VO-RL-PS
B
VO-RL-PT
C
WO-RL-PT
D
WO-SL-PT
72. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 5 15 26 38 51 ? 3820
A
63
B
65
C
62
D
64
73. D, E, F, G, L, M and N are sitting in a straight line, facing north. Only two people sit to the right of D. Only two people sit between D and G. Only two people sit between E and F. F sits to the immediate left of D. N sits to the immediate right of M. Who sits at the third position from the left end of the line?
A
L
B
G
C
D
D
M
74. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some Pomegranates are Peaches. Some Peaches are Lemons. All Lemons are Figs. Conclusions: (I) Some Peaches are Figs. (II) Some Pomegranates are Figs.
A
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
B
Only conclusion (II) follows
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
D
Only conclusion (I) follows
75. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? BTM 25 DVO 27 FXQ 29 HZS 31 ?
A
LBU 33
B
KCV 33
C
KDV 33
D
JBU 33
76. Mr. Z starts from Point A and drives 18 km towards the North. He then takes a left turn, drives 14 km, then turns left and drives 14 km. He then takes a right turn, drives 13 km, then turns left and drives 25 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 34 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 21 km, and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
A
8 km to the east
B
10 km to the north
C
7 km to the west
D
9 km to the south
77. In May 2025, which state/union territory government approved five cloud-seeding trials at an outlay of ₹3.21 crore to combat air pollution?
A
West Bengal
B
Karnataka
C
Punjab
D
Delhi
78. On 16 July 2025, India achieved a major milestone by successfully destroying two aerial high-speed unmanned targets at high altitude in Ladakh using the upgraded variant of the Akash Weapon System for the Indian Army called ______.
A
Akash Prime
B
Pinaka
C
Akash Advanced
D
BrahMos
79. When was the first Surya VHF radar reportedly handed over to the Indian Air Force?
A
February 2025
B
January 2025
C
March 2025
D
April 2025
80. Where was the first-ever national conference of Urban Local Body Chairpersons across Indian States and UTs inaugurated by the Lok Sabha Speaker Shri Om Birla in July 2025?
A
Gurugram
B
Ahmedabad
C
Noida
D
Chandigarh
81. What was India’s overall score in the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) for the year 2024 released in February 2025?
A
41
B
38
C
36
D
43
82. From 1 May 2025, which of the following portals did the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) mandate stakeholders to use?
A
PRAVAAH Portal
B
SAKSHAM Portal
C
SEVA Portal
D
VITARAN Portal
83. What is the full form of RIMES, an intergovernmental body in news in 2025?
A
Research Initiative for Mitigating Environmental Shocks
B
Regional Integrated Multi-Hazard Early Warning System
C
Regional Institute for Meteorological and Environmental Studies
D
Risk Information and Monitoring of Emergency Situations
84. As per the June 2025 India Child Protection report, what percentage of 44,902 rescued children were found in the worst forms of child labour?
A
60%
B
50%
C
90%
D
75%
85. Where was the first-ever International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) Assembly held in India in June 2025?
A
Pune
B
New Delhi
C
Bhopal
D
Panaji
86. Which cricketer was honoured with Padma Shri in 2025?
A
Virat Kohli
B
Rohit Sharma
C
Ravichandran Ashwin
D
Jasprit Bumrah
87. Which of the following airlines hosted the Power Creator Awards 2025?
A
Air India
B
SpiceJet
C
Vistara
D
IndiGo
88. Which scheme’s Deep Tech vertical had launched nine projects by mid-2025, with industries collaborating through DRDO’s Industry-Academia Centres of Excellence?
A
Technology Development Fund (TDF)
B
ADITI Scheme
C
iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence)
D
Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme (DTIS)
89. Who among the following did Madison Keys defeat in the Australian Open 2025 final?
A
Elena Rybakina
B
Naomi Osaka
C
Ons Jabeur
D
Aryna Sabalenka
90. Which of the following coaches received the Dronacharya Award for para-shooting in 2025?
A
Subhash Rana
B
Deepali Deshpande
C
S Muralidharan
D
Sandeep Sangwan
91. Which of the following insurance companies announced the adoption of the revised GST structure on all insurance products from 22 September 2025?
A
Kotak Life Insurance Co. Ltd.
B
Sahara India Life Insurance Co. Ltd.
C
HDFC Life Insurance Co. Ltd.
D
ICICI Prudential Life Insurance Co. Ltd.
92. Who authored the book 'To the Seventh Generation: The Journey of Christian Medical College Vellore', released in January 2025?
A
Dr. Atul Gawande
B
Prof. Romila Thapar
C
Dr. Devi Shetty
D
Dr. V I Mathan
93. The 51 st G7 summit was held in which of the following countries in June 2025?
A
Germany
B
India
C
Abu Dhabi
D
Canada
94. Who earned the 'Game Changer' award at the Women’s Football Awards, 2025?
A
Viviane Asseyi
B
Bethany England
C
Keira Walsh
D
Anita Asante
95. Which student activist became the first SFI member to be elected sarpanch in Gujarat in June 2025?
A
Satyesha Leuva
B
Monika Gusain
C
Ashish Rabari
D
Aayush Khatkar
96. As per the Sustainable Development Goals – National Indicator Framework Progress Report, 2025, published in June 2025, India’s installed renewable energy capacity rose from 64.04 watts per capita in 2014–15 to 156.31 watts per capita in 2024–25. This growth primarily supports which Sustainable Development Goal (SDG)?
A
SDG 13
B
SDG 9
C
SDG 12
D
SDG 7 "
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