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Group D — Test 48
00:00
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01. Which of the following acid-base indicators is colourless in acidic medium and pink in basic medium?
A
Bromothymol blue
B
Phenolphthalein
C
Litmus
D
Methyl orange
02. When acid reacts with a metal carbonate, it forms:
A
salt, carbon dioxide, and water
B
a base and water as products
C
gas and solid precipitate only
D
salt and hydrogen gas only
03. Which of the following statements about olfactory indicators is correct?
A
Onion and vanilla both lose their smell in acidic conditions.
B
In basic solutions, the smell of onion extract remains unchanged.
C
In acidic solutions, onion extract retains its characteristic smell.
D
In basic solutions, vanilla essence retains its original sweet smell.
04. What is the primary function of the structure 'A' attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum in the given diagram?
A
Production of fat molecules
B
Storing genetic material
C
Digestion of food particles
D
Manufacturing proteins
05. Why is conservation of petroleum important?
A
Petroleum is abundant in nature.
B
Petroleum is a renewable resource.
C
Petroleum does not affect the environment adversely.
D
Petroleum is a non-renewable resource.
06. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT for mass number?
A
Isobars have same mass number.
B
The number of nucleons is same as mass number.
C
Mass number is equal to the sum of number of neutrons and number of protons.
D
Protium and deuterium have same the mass number.
07. Which of the following characteristics of pea was a dominant trait, used by Mendel in his experiments?
A
Dwarf Plants
B
Green Seeds
C
Tall Plants
D
Wrinkled Seeds
08. What does the area under a velocity-time graph represent for motion along a straight line?
A
The total displacement of the object
B
The change in acceleration
C
The final velocity of the object
D
The total distance between two points
09. Read the following statements carefully and select the INCORRECT one.
A
Spinal cord acts as a relay between the brain and the rest of the body and also controls reflex actions.
B
Cerebellum helps in maintaining body posture and balance.
C
Medulla oblongata controls reflex actions like pulling hand away from a hot object.
D
Cerebrum is the largest part of the human brain and is responsible for thinking and voluntary actions.
10. The phenomenon of dispersion of light was first explained by ________.
A
Isaac Newton
B
James Clerk Maxwell
C
Albert Einstein
D
Christiaan Huygens
11. Which of the following is a saturated hydrocarbon?
A
Propane
B
Butyne
C
Ethyne
D
Ethene
12. In Rutherford's model of an atom, which of the following particles are double charged on helium ions?
A
Delta particles
B
Beta particles
C
Gamma particles
D
Alpha particles
13. Which of the following conditions will increase the rate of evaporation of a liquid?
A
Increase in humidity
B
Increase in wind speed
C
Decrease in surface area
D
Decrease in temperature
14. For a distinct echo to be heard, the minimum time interval between the original sound and the reflected sound should be approximately ___________.
A
1 s
B
0.5 s
C
0.1 s
D
0.01 s
15. The commercial unit of electric energy is kilowatt hour (kW h). Which of the following is the correct value of 1kWh?
A
1.6 × 106 Joule
B
3.6 × 106 Joule
C
1.9 × 106 Joule
D
3.0 × 106 Joule
16. Which of the following is true about action and reaction forces according to Newton’s third law?
A
They act on the same object at different times
B
They act in the same direction on the same object
C
They cancel each other out because they act on one object
D
They act on two different objects at the same time
17. Which of the following are the covering or protective tissues in the animal body?
A
Nervous tissues
B
Epithelial tissues
C
Parenchyma tissues
D
Sclerenchyma tissues
18. Which of the following is NOT responsible for the transmission of HIV-infection?
A
Transfusion of contaminated blood
B
Sharing infected needles
C
Hugging of infected person
D
Sexual contact with infected person
19. A person does 600 J of work in 3 minutes. What is the average power?
A
20 W
B
3.33 W
C
330 W
D
200 W
20. Which of the following is true about the mass of an object?
A
It increases at pole.
B
It stays the same no matter where the object is.
C
It depends on gravity.
D
It changes from place to place.
21. The symbol of a battery is:
A
several cells joined together
B
a rectangle with arrows
C
one long and one short line
D
a circle with a dot
22. The dense structure inside the nucleus that produces ribosomes is called the _____.
A
lysosome
B
centrosome
C
mitochondria
D
nucleolus
23. During electrolytic refining, which substance(s) get(s) collected at the cathode?
A
Insoluble impurities and gases
B
Pure form of the impure metal
C
The same metal with new bonds
D
Organic matter left from ores
24. Which of the following birth control methods can cause hormonal imbalance, and probably health issues?
A
Condoms
B
Oral contraceptive pills
C
Tubectomy
D
Copper-T
25. If the power of accommodation of a normal human eye is maximum, which of the following is correct for the ciliary muscles?
A
Partially contracted
B
Fully contracted
C
Fully relaxed
D
Partially relaxed
26. A man buys magazines in bulk for ₹20 each. He sells them for ₹23 each. Find the profit percentage.
A
12%
B
14%
C
10%
D
15%
27. Nishi travels to a shopping mall at 33 km/hr and returns at 57 km/hr. What is her average speed (in km/hr) for the entire journey?
A
34.8
B
41.8
C
32.8
D
39.1
28.
A
204
B
214
C
174
D
234
29. The vertices of a triangle are A(4,−6), B(3,−2) and C(5,2). Find the area of the triangle formed by these points.
A
10 sq. units
B
6 sq. units
C
8 sq. units
D
5 sq. units
30. Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7% per annum, respectively. Akshay borrowed an amount of ₹4,60,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹) between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Akshay after 4 years.
A
63,900
B
65,400
C
64,400
D
65,900
31. P is any point inside the rectangle ABCD. If PA = 100 cm, PB = 76 cm, and PC = 85 cm, then the length PD (in cm) is equal to:
A
104
B
107
C
103
D
112
32. A cricketer has an average of 97 runs over 6 innings. If he scores 231 runs in the 7 th inning, by how many runs (rounded off to the nearest whole number) does his average score increase?
A
17
B
25
C
11
D
19
33. A man is walking at a speed of 12 km/hr. After every kilometre of walk, he takes a rest for 7 minutes. How much time (in minutes) will he take to cover a distance of 6 km?
A
42
B
72
C
65
D
54
34. Mahi would need twice as much time as Neha and Asha combined, while Asha would require three times as much time as Neha and Mahi combined to complete a certain task. If all three friends work together, they can finish the task in 20 days. How many days would Neha take to complete the same task on her own?
A
42 days
B
24 days
C
48 days
D
36 days
35. Find the value of (2.99) 2 .
A
8.9041
B
8.8401
C
8.9104
D
8.9401
36. If the mean proportional of X and 125 is 25, then find the value of X. 5773
A
8
B
7
C
5
D
4
37. The LCM of two numbers is 84. The numbers are in the ratio 4 : 3. Find the sum of the numbers. 3129
A
32
B
49
C
24
D
56
38. The arithmetic mean of the observations 29, 90, 50, 26, 36, 77, 86, 33 and 41 is:
A
52
B
65
C
60
D
50
39. The sum of the present ages of A and B is 42 years. After 6 years, A will be twice as old as
A
14 year
B
12 years
C
10 years
D
15 years
40. One pipe can fill a tank in 8 minutes, while another pipe can empty the completely filled tank in 40 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how many minutes will it take to fill one-half of the tank?
A
11
B
6
C
10
D
5
41. A dealer marks his goods at 29% above the cost price and allows a discount of 7% on the marked price. What is his gain or loss percentage?
A
22.67% gain
B
19.97% gain
C
23.89% gain
D
19.1% loss
42. A dealer purchased a dryer for ₹92,000. He allows a discount of 77% on its marked price and still gains 83%. Find the marked price of the dryer.
A
₹7,31,919
B
₹7,31,917
C
₹7,32,000
D
₹7,31,858
43. The income of Raman is ₹61,500. He saves 17% of his income. If his income increases by 38% and expenditure increases by 20%, then his savings will:
A
decrease by ₹13,159
B
decrease by ₹13,165
C
increase by ₹13,161
D
increase by ₹13,156
44. If 20% of a number is added to 84, then the result is the same number. 75% of the same number is:
A
108.75
B
98.75
C
88.75
D
78.75
45. Simplify the algebraic expression. a 2 (a + 2) – 3a (a 2 – 3) – 5a (a + 5)
A
2a3 – 3a2 – 16
B
a3 – 3a2 – 16a
C
–2a3 – a2 – 16a
D
–2a3 – 3a2 – 16a
46. Three-fourth of a number exceeds its two-fifth by 63. What is the number?
A
126
B
163
C
180
D
252
47. Gaurav starts from Point A and drives 11 km towards the South. He then takes a left turn, drives 7 km, then turns left and drives 14 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 11 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 3 km, and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
A
5 km to the west
B
5 km to the east
C
4 km to the east
D
4 km to the west
48. Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from Left to Right only. (Left) 5 8 3 6 9 4 2 7 5 1 3 4 (Right) How many such even numbers are there, which are immediately followed by an odd number?
A
More than three
B
One
C
Three
D
Two
49. M, N, O, P, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. Only two people sit between P and O when counted from the left of O. W sits third to the left of N. Y sits to the immediate right of N. Y sits second to the left of P. X is not an immediate neighbour of W. Who sits third to the right of M?
A
O
B
W
C
N
D
Y
50. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 812 813 810 815 808 817 ? 3521
A
805
B
820
C
806
D
819
51. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (16, 262, 7) (40, 1612, 13)
A
(7, 74, 21)
B
(8, 72, 4)
C
(36, 1318, 18)
D
(4, 38, 23)
52. In a certain code language, ‘she takes photos’ is coded as ‘rp bs eg’ and ‘photos are beautiful’ is coded as ‘zs vx bs’. How is ‘photos' coded in that language?
A
rp
B
vx
C
bs
D
eg
53. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
PUN
B
NSL
C
RWO
D
HMF
54. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 4 7 1 8 3 5 4 2 9 9 3 3 1 2 8 6 7 4 4 6 6 2 1 8 1 9 3 (Right) How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Four
D
Five
55. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? FEL221, NMT202, VUB183, DCJ164, ?
A
LUR145
B
LKR145
C
LKS145
D
MKR145
56. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All cars are buses. All buses are planes. No car is a train. Conclusions: (I) No bus is a train. (II) No plane is a train. 11660
A
Only statement I follows
B
Neither statement I nor II follows
C
Both statements I and II follow
D
Only statement II follows
57. F, G, H, I, M, N and O are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table. Only two people sit between I and O, when counted from the left of O. G sits third to the left of N. H sits to the immediate right of N. H sits second to the left of I. F is not an immediate neighbour of G. Who sits third to the right of M?
A
H
B
F
C
N
D
O
58. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. DEAR - EADR - RAED SOME - OMSE - EMOS
A
JUTE - UJTE - EUTJ
B
WARD - ARWD - DRAW
C
ZONE - ZNOE - ENOZ
D
RACE - ACRE - ACER
59. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
STV
B
IJL
C
WYZ
D
HIK
60. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 777 767 762 752 747 ? 3899
A
737
B
738
C
739
D
736
61. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? ULO SJM QHK OFI ?
A
MDG
B
MCH
C
MCG
D
MDH
62. Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit to the right of C. A sits second to the left of D. B sits to the immediate right of F. E sits second to the left of C. How many people sit between D and B?
A
4
B
3
C
1
D
2
63. RY 17 is related to VW 3 in a certain way. In the same way, IK 11 is related to MI −3. To which of the following is PI 16 related, following the same logic?
A
BT 3
B
TG 2
C
NJ 7
D
RT 5
64. Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. All numbers are single- digit numbers. Counting to be done from left to right. (Left) 3 7 1 9 4 6 2 5 8 3 7 5 9 4 6 2 5 8 3 7 1 9 8 6 2 (Right). How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
A
Five
B
Four
C
Three
D
Two
65. Seven boxes, B, C, D, I, J, K and L, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only C is kept below I. Only four boxes are kept between C and J. Only L is kept between J and D. B is kept at one of the positions above J. How many boxes are kept between K and C?
A
Two
B
Four
C
Three
D
One
66. GMUZ is related to EJSW in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, YAMN is related to WXKK. To which of the given options is SRGE related, following the same logic?
A
QBNJ
B
QOER
C
QOEB
D
QMKI
67. In a row of 31 people facing north, Jack is 7 th from the right end. If Ronald sits 5 th to the left of Jack, what is Ronald’s position from the left end of the row?
A
19th
B
20th
C
21st
D
22nd
68. In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’, A @ B means ‘A is the brother of B’, A - B means ‘A is the wife of B’, and A # B means ‘A is the father of B’. How is O related to V if ‘O - P # T + G @ V’?
A
Sister
B
Mother
C
Daughter
D
Wife
69. Mr. Akai starts from Point A and drives 18 km towards south. He then takes a right turn, drives 25 km, turns right and drives 9 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 11 km. He then takes a right turn, drives 5 km, turns left and drives 4 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 14 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
A
10 km to the east
B
9 km to the west
C
10 km to the west
D
10 km to the south
70. If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 25 − 16 ÷ 79 + 189 × 3 = ?
A
458
B
416
C
469
D
462
71. If 2 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 178673, then what will be the sum of largest and smallest digits in the new number thus formed?
A
13
B
12
C
11
D
10
72. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 19, 22, 28, 37, 49, ?
A
63
B
64
C
65
D
66
73. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation? 56 A 8 C 2 B 7 D 6 = ?
A
15
B
13
C
16
D
14
74. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) * + 9 \ / ? > @ 5 5 / ? / 9 * 1 ? # + 6 # (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a number?
A
One
B
Two
C
None
D
Three
75. In a certain code language, ‘books are treasures’ is coded as ‘ab hi pq’ and ‘treasures read gems’ is coded as ‘st hi xy’. How is ‘treasures’ coded in that language?
A
pq
B
st
C
xy
D
hi
76. Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement(s). Statements: All samosas are patties. All samosas are burgers. Conclusions: (I) Some patties are burgers. (II) All burgers are samosas.
A
Only conclusion (I) follows.
B
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
C
Only conclusion (II) follows.
D
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
77. The Mukhya Mantrir Jiban Anuprerana Scheme of Assam offers _______.
A
Monthly scholarship
B
Loan repayable over 5 years
C
Fellowship with monthly stipend
D
One-time grant
78. According to the report by the International Energy Agency (IEA) released in June 2025, which country is the third-largest contributor to global power generation growth over the past five years?
A
United States of America
B
India
C
China
D
Russia
79. Which of the following foreign banks became the first to list a bond on National Stock Exchange – International Exchange (NSE IX) at GIFT City in June 2025?
A
HSBC Bank
B
Barclays Bank
C
DBS Bank
D
DFCC Bank
80. Which team emerged victorious, defeating Nepal 54-36, to claim the inaugural men’s Kho-Kho World Cup title in New Delhi on 19 January 2025?
A
India
B
Nepal
C
Pakistan
D
Bangladesh
81. As of June 2025, the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA), based in New Delhi, focuses on protecting how many species?
A
Eight
B
Seven
C
Six
D
Five
82. Which city saw disbursement of ₹6.79 crore scholarship to over 11,000 minority students by July 2025?
A
Bhopal
B
Gandhinagar
C
Pryagraj
D
Patna
83. Who among the following Indian athletes set a new national record in the men's 5,000 m event at Boston University in 2025?
A
Jinson Johnson
B
Murali Sreeshankar
C
Gulveer Singh
D
Avinash Sable
84. What treaty was signed on 17 January 2025, in Moscow to deepen cooperation across military, energy, and tech sectors?
A
Iran‑Russia Comprehensive Strategic Partnership Treaty
B
Russia‑India Space Agreement
C
Russia‑EU Comprehensive Strategic Partnership Treaty
D
Russia‑China Strategic Partnership
85. Who received the Padma Bhushan in 2025 for his contributions to the field of Arts from Maharashtra?
A
Pankaj Patel
B
S Ajith Kumar
C
Nandamuri Balakrishna
D
Shekhar Kapur
86. Who was the first Indian to win two IPL final Player of the Match awards in 2017and 2025?
A
Virat Kohli
B
Jasprit Bumrah
C
Rohit Sharma
D
Krunal Pandya
87. Which central scheme reduces budget allocations drastically for minority education scholarships in 2025‑26?
A
Naya Savera
B
PM‑Viraasat
C
USTTAD
D
Pre‑Matric
88. In September 2025, which state government approved an Environmental, Social and Governance (ESG) policy to attract environment-friendly and low-polluting industries?
A
Andhra Pradesh
B
Haryana
C
Kerala
D
Gujarat
89. In September 2025, which region was declared as India’s first cold desert biosphere reserve under the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) programme?
A
Spiti Valley
B
Satluj Valley
C
Nubra Valley
D
Ladakh Valley
90. Which of the following organisations partnered with Vivifi Finance in December 2024 to provide loans to gig workers?
A
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
B
Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH)
C
Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
D
Indian Banks’ Association (IBA)
91. The Bilderberg Conference from 12–15 June 2025 took place in _________.
A
Stockholm
B
Copenhagen
C
Oslo
D
Helsinki
92. In June 2025, which company was licensed to produce the Expandable Mobile Shelter for armed forces?
A
Bharat Forge
B
Bharat Electronics Ltd
C
Goma Engineering Pvt Ltd
D
Metaltech Motor Bodies Pvt Ltd
93. In June 2025, the Government of India announced to set up a Centre of Excellence to mitigate human wildlife conflict under which ministry?
A
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
B
Ministry of Law and Justice
C
Ministry of Home Affairs
D
Ministry of Rural Development
94. Bold Kurukshetra 2025 is a bilateral military exercise conducted between India and which other nation?
A
China
B
Russia
C
Singapore
D
United Kingdom
95. What was the primary technical issue that caused a delay of the Axiom-4 mission on 10 June 2025?
A
Solar panel malfunction
B
Communication failure
C
Engine overheating
D
Liquid oxygen leak
96. Who won the men’s race at the 2025 Paris Marathon?
A
Sila Kiptoo
B
Eliud Kipchoge
C
Ibrahim Hassan
D
Bénard Biwott "
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