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Group D — Test 46
00:00
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01. How can the transmission of certain sexually transmitted infections (STIs) be reduced during sexual activity?
A
By taking antibiotics before every sexual act
B
By only engaging in sexual activity during daytime
C
By using protection such as condoms during intercourse
D
By avoiding physical contact with all individuals
02. When fats and oils are oxidised, they develop a smell and taste that is:
A
rancid
B
pleasant
C
spicy
D
fruity
03. What does Snell’s Law of refraction state about the relationship between the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction for the given pair of media?
A
Both angles are always equal in all media.
B
The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction remains constant.
C
Their difference is always constant.
D
Their sum is always 90°.
04. Which of the following is true about the cells of meristematic tissue?
A
They are dead cells with no nucleus or cytoplasm.
B
They are loosely packed, mature cells with large intercellular spaces.
C
They are inactive with large vacuoles and thick walls.
D
They are active cells with dense cytoplasm, thin walls, prominent nuclei and no vacuoles.
05. An electric bulb is connected to a 240 V generator and draws a current of 0.25 A. What is the power consumed by the bulb?
A
60 J
B
960 W
C
60 W
D
960 J
06. What is reverberation?
A
Loss of sound energy in air
B
Spreading of sound in all directions
C
Persistence of sound due to multiple reflections of sound waves
D
Change in pitch of sound
07. Which of the following is essential for animals to participate in the process of mating?
A
Physical maturity
B
They must have attractive eyes
C
They must be tall
D
Sexual immaturity
08. Which of the following statements about coal and petroleum conservation is correct?
A
They do not cause pollution.
B
Their formation takes millions of years.
C
They are inexpensive to extract.
D
They are renewable resources of energy.
09. When a light ray passes through a rectangular glass slab, the emergent ray is ____________.
A
Bent toward the normal without displacement
B
Parallel to the incident ray but shifted sideward
C
Perpendicular to the incident ray
D
Along the same line as the incident ray
10. A bus travels a 6 km distance in 20 minutes to go from point A to point B. The bus travels from point B to point A in 30 minutes. What is the average speed in m/s of the bus?
A
24
B
400
C
2400
D
4
11. If the velocity of a body is doubled, its kinetic energy becomes:
A
half
B
double
C
four times
D
eight times
12. Which of the following metals is characterised by low density and softness?
A
Copper
B
Potassium
C
Aluminium
D
Magnesium
13. Which of the following is INCORRECT about striated muscle?
A
Each striated muscle fibre contains a single nucleus
B
Mostly attached to bones and help in body movement
C
These are present in limbs
D
Also called voluntary muscles
14. An athlete runs on a circular track with a diameter of 300 m and completes one round in 50 seconds. If the athlete runs for 2 minutes and 30 seconds, what is the total distance covered from the starting point? (Use = 3.14)
A
Distance = 942 m
B
Distance = 1500 m
C
Distance = 471 m
D
Distance = 2826 m
15. What is the primary component of the plant cell wall?
A
Suberin
B
Cellulose
C
Lignin
D
Cutin
16. Which of the following reactions is an example of a double displacement reaction?
A
CaCO ₃ → CaO + CO ₂
B
Zn + H ₂ SO ₄ → ZnSO ₄ + H ₂
C
AgNO ₃ + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO ₃
D
2Mg + O ₂ → 2MgO
17. What is an ion?
A
An atom or group of atoms with a positive or negative charge
B
A neutral atom
C
A proton
D
A molecule
18. Which of the following metals reacts most vigorously with cold water?
A
Iron
B
Cobalt
C
Sodium
D
Copper
19. Which of the following components is represented by a zig-zag line in a circuit diagram?
A
Bulb
B
Battery
C
Resistor
D
Switch
20. Select the correct option regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): Iron gets coated with a reddish-brown substance when exposed to moist air. Reason (R): Rust forms due to the reaction of iron with moisture and oxygen.
A
A is false, but R is true.
B
A is true, but R is false.
C
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
D
Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
21. Which of the following is NOT a base unit in the International System of Units (SI)?
A
Second
B
Joule
C
Metre
D
Kilogramme
22. If the thrust acting on a surface remains constant, how does the pressure change with the area of contact?
A
Pressure decreases when area decreases.
B
Pressure does not depend on area.
C
Pressure increases when area decreases.
D
Pressure increases when area increases.
23. Which of the following vitamins are maintained at high levels in poultry feed to support optimal growth and health?
A
Vitamin B9 and B12
B
Vitamin A, D and E
C
Vitamin B1, B2, B3
D
Vitamin C and K
24. How does pollination contribute to seed formation in plants?
A
By dispersing seeds to new locations
B
By forming a protective seed coat around the ovule
C
By transferring pollen from the anther to the stigma, enabling fertilisation
D
By producing nectar to attract pollinators
25. Select the option regarding the matter which has sufficient spaces between them or are not tightly packed. Salt, Iron, Sugar
A
Both iron and salt
B
Only sugar
C
Both sugar and salt
D
Only iron
26. A and B working together can do a piece of work in 3 days. B alone can do the same work in 12 days. How long (in days) will A alone take to do double the work?
A
8
B
9
C
11
D
4
27. An athletic track forms a shape consisting of a rectangle with semicircles on two opposite ends. If the straight portions are each 100 metres long and the total perimeter of the track is 400 metres, what is the radius of each semicircular end (rounded off to two decimal places)?
A
31.82 metres
B
33.73 metres
C
32.43 metres
D
30.23 metres
28. Juli is 24 years older than her daughter. In 6 years, Juli’s age will be double that of her daughter. What is the present age (in years) of Juli?
A
48
B
30
C
24
D
42
29. The sides of a triangle are 34 cm, 18 cm and 20 cm. What is the length of its altitude corresponding to the side with the length of 18 cm?
A
63 cm
B
42 cm
C
22 cm
D
16 cm
30. The sides of a triangle are 87 cm, 108 cm, and 75 cm. What is the length (in cm) of its altitude corresponding to the side with a length of 108 cm?
A
24
B
17
C
60
D
41
31. If P is a prime number, what is the HCF of P and P + 1?
A
P
B
1
C
P2 + P
D
P2 + 1
32. A dealer purchased a ceiling fan for ₹391. After allowing a discount of 31% on its marked price, he still gains 68%. Find the marked price of the ceiling fan.
A
₹952
B
₹927
C
₹994
D
₹902
33. How many seconds will a boy take to run one complete round around a square field of side 25 metres, if he runs at a speed of 4 km/hr?
A
90
B
80
C
100
D
70
34. The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is 60° and the foot of the ladder is 5.6 m away from the wall. Find the length of the ladder.
A
14.2 m
B
11.2 m
C
10.2 m
D
12.2 m
35. The Rajdhani Express and Garib Rath Express run in the same direction with speeds of 87 km/hr and 51 km/hr, respectively, and their lengths are the same. What is the length of the Rajdhani Express if it completely crosses the Garib Rath Express in 175 seconds?
A
880 m
B
875 m
C
883 m
D
867 m
36. A seller sells two fruits, apples and bananas. An apple costs ₹20 and a banana costs ₹10. Ravi buys 6 fruits and pays ₹80. How many more bananas did he buy than apples?
A
2
B
4
C
1
D
3
37. In an election with two candidates, 8% of the registered voters did not vote, and 120 voters submitted blank ballots. Among the votes cast, the winning candidate received support from 48% of all registered voters and secured 780 more votes than the other candidate. Determine the total number of voters on the list.
A
16,500
B
15,690
C
14,840
D
17,800
38. The amount on a sum of ₹2,500 at the rate of 14% per annum compound interest, compounded annually, in 2 years will be:
A
₹3,249
B
₹2,877
C
₹3,184
D
₹2,497
39. Two pipes, P and Q, can fill a cistern in 37 minutes 30 seconds and 45 minutes, respectively. Both pipes are opened simultaneously. The cistern gets completely filled in exactly 30 minutes if pipe Q is turned off after x minutes. Find x. 7002
A
9
B
8
C
7
D
12
40. The average age of 30 students of a class is 19 years. If the age of the teacher is also included, the average age of the whole group becomes 20 years. The age (in years) of the teacher is:
A
50
B
54
C
52
D
58
41. The price of a commodity decreases by 5% in the first week and then increases by 8% in the second week. What is the effective percentage increase in the price after the second week?
A
3%
B
1.5%
C
0.8%
D
2.6%
42. ₹10,279 is divided among A, B, and C in such a way that if ₹67, ₹33, and ₹13 are deducted from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 4 : 2 : 20. Find the difference between B’s and C’s original shares.
A
₹6988
B
₹7188
C
₹7138
D
₹7018
43. A fruit vendor buys 10 kg of apples at ₹85/kg and sells them at ₹100/kg. What is his total profit?
A
₹180
B
₹140
C
₹150
D
₹120
44. If the mean proportional of X and 147 is 84, then find the value of X.
A
49
B
50
C
48
D
45
45. DMART is offering Buy 30, get 11 free on grocery items. What is the net percentage discount being offered by DMART? (Correct up to two decimal places)
A
24.84%
B
23.99%
C
28.04%
D
26.83%
46. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 8 8 2 9 1 9 7 2 9 5 9 3 6 4 9 7 2 2 2 7 4 5 8 1 7 9 9 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
A
Five
B
Eight
C
Seven
D
Six
47. In a certain code language, ‘LAVS’ is coded as ‘3812’ and ‘VALE’ is coded as ‘1342’. What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language?
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
1
48. If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 1245367, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Two
49. If ‘A’ stands for ‘x’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-’ , what will come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation? 16 B 4 D 8 A 3 C 28 = ?
A
10
B
6
C
8
D
11
50. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
KOJ
B
HLG
C
EID
D
TXT
51. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 517 520 525 532 541 ?
A
553
B
552
C
551
D
554
52. Mr. Z starts from Point A and drives 13 km towards the South. He then takes a left turn, drives 15 km, then turns left and drives 27 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 31 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 14 km, and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
A
17 km to the east
B
19 km to the west
C
18 km to the south
D
16 km to the east
53. O, P, Q, R, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only two people sit to the right of X. Only two people sit between X and Q. Only two people sit between O and P. P sits to the immediate left of X. R sits to the immediate right of Y. Who sits at the third position from the left end of the line?
A
W
B
Y
C
O
D
P
54. Preethi ranked 6 th from the top and 12 th from the bottom in her class. How many students are there in the class?
A
17
B
20
C
16
D
19
55. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
BEE
B
TVW
C
EGH
D
OQR
56. NK 16 is related to QN 12 in a certain way. In the same way, PS 20 is related to SV 16. To which of the given options is BX 30 related, following the same logic?
A
EA 34
B
EB 26
C
EA 26
D
FB 26
57. In a certain code language, P + Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’, P # Q means ‘P is the wife of Q’, P & Q means ‘P is the brother of Q’, P % Q means ‘P is the father of Q’. How is I related to M if ‘I # J % B & L + M’?
A
Father's mother
B
Father's sister
C
Mother's mother
D
Mother's sister
58. Seven boxes B, D, E, P, S, T and W are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. W is kept second from the bottom. Only three boxes are kept between W and B. P is kept at one of the positions below W. Only D is kept between B and S. E is kept at one of the positions above B. How many boxes are kept between P and E? 10013
A
One
B
Five
C
Three
D
Four
59. Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. NOK−JKG EFB−ABX
A
TUQ−OQL
B
TTO−PQM
C
TUQ−PQM
D
TTO−OPL
60. LR 9 is related to PT 3 in a certain way. In the same way, TS 13 is related to XU 7. To which of the given options is GE 19 related, following the same logic?
A
NJ 12
B
BG 14
C
JK 11
D
KG 13
61. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? FIM19 GJN26 HKO33 ILP40 ?
A
JMR48
B
JMR47
C
JMQ48
D
JMQ47
62. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 24 41 58 75 92 ?
A
117
B
113
C
109
D
105
63. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some machines are anchors. Some anchors are wheels. Conclusions: (I): Some machines are wheels. (II): All wheels are anchors.
A
Only conclusion (II) follows
B
Only conclusion (I) follows
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
D
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
64. In a certain code language, 'door win king' is coded as 'ab ap ly' and 'win key mom' is coded as 'dw tc ap'. How is 'win' coded in that language?
A
ap
B
ab
C
dw
D
ly
65. Refer to the number and symbol series given below and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Left) % * 7 % € % 2 # € $ € © 9 5 6 # 9 & 6 % 7 & (Right) How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A
2
B
1
C
0
D
3
66. Akshay starts from Point M and drives 8 km towards the east. He then takes a right turn, drives 5 km, turns left and drives 3 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 7 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 11 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 5 km and stops at Point P. How far(shortest distance) and in which direction is Point P with respect to Point M? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
3 km towards north
B
6 km towards south
C
7 km towards south
D
9 km towards north
67. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 256 258 262 268 ? 286 4227
A
274
B
278
C
280
D
276
68. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series, based on the English alphabetical order? SWZ QUX OSV MQT ?
A
KOR
B
KOS
C
KPS
D
KPR
69. Each of the digits in the number 6325894 is arranged in descending order from right to left. Calculate the sum of digits whose position(s) remain(s) unchanged as compared to that in the original number and the lowest digit.
A
8
B
17
C
12
D
10
70. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (44, 52, 18) (50, 56, 22)
A
(19, 14, 13)
B
(42, 78, 4)
C
(30, 22, 19)
D
(41, 82, 1)
71. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statement(s). Statements: No Judges are Accountants. Some Accountants are Nurses. All Nurses are Librarians. Conclusions: (I) No Judges are Nurses. (II) Some Accountants are Librarians.
A
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
B
Only conclusion (I) follows
C
Only conclusion (II) follows
D
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
72. A, B, C, E, F, P, and Q are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. A sits fourth to the left of C. P sits fourth to the right of B. Only two people sit between C and B, when counted from the left of C. E is not an immediate neighbour of P or B. F is not an immediate neighbour of P. Who sits third to the right of Q?
A
B
B
C
C
F
D
P
73. Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 5 2 3 6 9 5 1 4 7 8 5 2 3 (Right) How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
A
Three
B
Four
C
Two
D
One
74. Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers.) (Left) 3 @ © 6 5 € € 3 3 8 € % 2 7 6 # 7 * £ € 9 $ (Right) How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a number?
A
Three
B
Zero
C
One
D
Two
75. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. E sits third to the right of F. B sits second to the left of E. C sits second to the right of A. D sits to the immediate right of C. How many people sit between E and D, when counted from the left of D?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Four
76. Which athlete set a new American outdoor record in the men's 5000 m with a time of 12 : 45.27?
A
Nico Young
B
Grant Fisher
C
Yared Nuguse
D
Cole Hocker
77. According to a July 2025 report by the Centre for Science and Environment, all mega cities in India—including Kolkata, Bengaluru, Mumbai, Hyderabad and Chennai—saw high concentrations of which pollutant(s) during the summer of 2025?
A
Nitrogen oxides
B
Ground-level ozone
C
Volatile organic compounds
D
Black carbon
78. As per the survey conducted by the Yale Program on Climate Change Communication and CVoter from December 5, 2024, to February 18, 2025, what percentage of Indians reported experiencing severe air pollution in the past 12 months?
A
52%
B
73%
C
80%
D
62%
79. In September 2025, Indian cricket team refused to accept the Asia Cup trophy from Asian Cricket Council president and Interior Minister of ______.
A
Pakistan
B
Afghanistan
C
Sri Lanka
D
Bangladesh
80. Who among the following won the 2025 Abel Prize for contributions to algebraic analysis and representation theory?
A
Philippe Aghion
B
Masaki Kashiwara
C
Joel Mokyr
D
Terence Tao
81. The Constitutional Amendment Bill introduced in August 2025 prevents individuals in jail from holding which of the following positions?
A
Directors of private corporations
B
Constitutional roles like Prime Minister and Chief Ministers
C
Heads of universities and colleges
D
Senior bank executive roles
82. SBM Bank India entered into a bancassurance partnership with which among the following companies in May 2025?
A
Axis Max Life Insurance Co. Ltd.
B
Kotak Life Insurance Co. Ltd.
C
ICICI Prudential Life Insurance
D
Life Insurance Corporation of India
83. The 115 th executive council meeting of the All-India Mayor Council was held on 15-16 June 2025 in which city?
A
Panchkula
B
Agra
C
Mumbai
D
New Delhi
84. Where were the 2025 Asian Athletics Championships held?
A
India
B
South Korea
C
China
D
Bangladesh
85. The 24 th edition of the World Sustainable Development Summit 2025, organised by TERI, commenced in __________.
A
Mumbai
B
Bengaluru
C
New Delhi
D
Hyderabad
86. In March 2025, which three Central Asian countries signed the Khujand Treaty to settle border disputes?
A
Tajikistan, Kyrgyzstan, Uzbekistan
B
Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan
C
Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan
D
Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, Kyrgyzstan
87. According to GS Krishnan, which of the following sectors are highlighted in the India BioEconomy Report, 2025?
A
BioEnergy, BioIndustrial, BioPharma, and BioServices
B
BioAgri, BioPharma, Renewable Energy, and BioMedical
C
BioPharma, BioAgri, BioServices, and Robotics Biotech
D
BioPharma, BioIndustrial, BioAgri, and BioServices
88. What was the name of the bilateral Indo-French military drill held from 18 June to 1 July 2025 at Camp Larzac?
A
Shakti 2025
B
Prithvi 2025
C
Vikas 2025
D
Trishul 2025
89. Which of the following ministries launched the Aadhaar Good Governance Portal to streamline approval process for Aadhaar authentication requests and to make Aadhaar more people-friendly, enable ease of living, and enable better access to services for people?
A
Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
B
Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
C
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
D
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
90. During which of the following editions of the National Finite Element Developers’ meeting did Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) unveil the latest version of Finite Element Analysis of Structures (FEAST) software in February 2025?
A
10th
B
6th
C
8th
D
4th
91. In November 2025, Narendra Modi presented a revolutionary indigenous innovation of India, as the country’s indigenous quantum security chip called:
A
Next-Gen Quantum Shield Chip (NQSC)
B
Indian Quantum Encryption Module (IQEM)
C
Quantum Cyber Defence Chip (QCDC)
D
Quantum Security Integrated Processor (QSIP)
92. Which district in Arunachal Pradesh saw the inauguration of a Khelo India multipurpose hall in 2025?
A
Tawang
B
Kamle
C
Lohit
D
Itanagar
93. Where was the Khelo India Winter Games 2025 second phase held?
A
Leh
B
Gulmarg
C
Manali
D
Auli
94. Which of the following financial bodies imposed a penalty of ₹54.78 crore on 353 regulated entities in FY25?
A
Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
B
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
C
NSDL Payments Bank
D
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
95. Who took charge as the Chief Election Commissioner of India on 19 February 2025, under the new provisions of the 2023 appointment act?
A
Rajiv Kumar
B
Anup Chandra Pandey
C
Gyanesh Kumar
D
Sukhbir Singh Sandhu "
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