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Group D — Test 45
00:00
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01. If the speed of an object is doubled, its kinetic energy ________.
A
remains the same
B
becomes half
C
becomes four times
D
becomes double
02. In a running race, a boy starts at rest and reaches 60 m/s velocity in 5 min. If acceleration is uniform, the acceleration and distance covered by the boy during this period are _______ and _____, respectively.
A
20 m/s2 and 9 km
B
0.2 m/s2 and 9 km
C
0.2 m/s2 and 600 m
D
12 m/s2 and 9000 m
03. Which of the following is NOT a membrane bound organelle in eukaryotic cells?
A
Ribosome
B
Vacuole
C
Lysosome
D
Chromoplast
04. Why clove oil is used as an olfactory indicator?
A
It gives a different colour in acidic and basic medium.
B
Different colour effervescences are observed in acidic and basic medium.
C
Vigorous fuming of different colours is observed in acidic and basic medium.
D
It gives a different smell in acidic and basic medium.
05. A convex lens produces a magnification of (− 2), when an object is placed at a distance X cm from it. If the image distance is 40 cm, then what is the value of X?
A
+ 20 cm
B
+ 80 cm
C
− 80 cm
D
− 20 cm
06. The centre of curvature of a concave mirror is:
A
The point where parallel rays of light meet after reflection
B
The geometric centre of the spherical surface of which the mirror is a part
C
The midpoint of the mirror’s aperture
D
The point on the principal axis where image of an object at infinity is formed
07. Ozone protects the Earth from ________ radiation of the sun.
A
cosmic
B
ultraviolet
C
gamma
D
infrared
08. Which of the following instruments is NOT based on Archimedes’ principle?
A
Submarine
B
Lactometer
C
Hydrometer
D
Ammeter
09. Contraceptive devices such as the loop or the copper-T are placed in which part of the human body?
A
Ovary
B
Uterus
C
Kidney
D
Heart
10. During inheritance studies, how many copies of the factor was proposed by Mendel, which was controlling traits present in sexually reproducing organisms?
A
One
B
Three
C
Two
D
Four
11. Which metal is placed at the starting of the reactivity series?
A
Gold
B
Aluminium
C
Potassium
D
Iron
12. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A
Reverberation is common in large halls with hard walls.
B
Excessive reverberation can disturb speech.
C
Reverberation occurs due to multiple reflections of sound.
D
Reverberation helps improve clarity of sound.
13. If the velocity of an object changes from an initial value u to the final value v in time (t), then what will be the acceleration (a)?
A
a = t/(v - u)
B
a = v/(u - t)
C
a = (v - u)×t
D
a = (v - u)/t
14. Two resistors, R 1 and R2, are connected in parallel. Their equivalent resistance is 5 Ω . When one of them is removed, the resistance of the circuit increases to 10 Ω . Which of the following is the correct value of the other resistor?
A
5 Ω
B
20 Ω
C
15 Ω
D
10 Ω
15. Which of the following cells change shape by changing the amount of water in them?
A
Striated muscle cell
B
Smooth muscle cell
C
Cardiac muscle cell
D
Plant cell
16. The correct order of reactivity of the following metals is: K, Mg, Al, Zn
A
Zn > Mg > Al > K
B
K > Mg > Al > Zn
C
Mg > K > Zn > Al
D
K > Al > Mg > Zn
17. Which of the following is parenchyma type and present in aquatic plants, with large air cavities to help them float?
A
Companion cell
B
Aerenchyma
C
Chlorenchyma
D
Tracheid
18. Which of the following statements is true about ligaments?
A
Ligaments are not highly flexible connective tissues connecting two bones.
B
Ligaments do not connect bones to bones and are very elastic.
C
Ligaments connect muscles to bones and are highly flexible.
D
Ligaments connect bones to bones and are very elastic with little matrix.
19. Which of the following is NOT an example of a heterogenous mixture?
A
Sand and salt
B
Sand and sugar
C
Vinegar
D
Water in oil
20. The discovery of which subatomic particle led to the development of Thomson's model?
A
Positron
B
Proton
C
Neutron
D
Electron
21. From the collected samples of the following solutions from the science laboratory, the correct acid-base pair may be categorised as:
A
calcium hydroxide [Ca(OH)2] and potassium hydroxide (KOH)
B
acetic acid (CH3COOH) and sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
C
magnesium hydroxide [Mg(OH)2] and ammonium hydroxide (NH4OH)
D
sulphuric acid (H2SO4) and nitric acid (HNO3)
22. Which type of compound is formed when sodium reacts with chlorine?
A
Ionic compound
B
Coordinate compound
C
Metallic compound
D
Covalent compound
23. If a current of 4 A flows through a resistor of 50 Ω for 8 minutes, the heat produced is _________.
A
288 kJ
B
384 kJ
C
192 kJ
D
96 kJ
24. How does surface area affect the rate of evaporation?
A
Larger surface area increases evaporation
B
Evaporation only occurs with liquids in closed containers
C
Smaller surface area increases evaporation
D
Surface area has no effect
25. Which of the following statements about sexual reproduction in animals is correct?
A
Sexual reproduction involves only one parent and produces identical offspring.
B
All animals reproduce sexually during their entire life span.
C
Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of male and female gametes.
D
Fertilisation in animals always occurs outside the female body.
26.
A
120
B
110
C
140
D
130
27. The cost price of a box of marker is ₹3,300. The shopkeeper gives 75% of discount on the cost price. What will be the selling price (in ₹)?
A
825
B
812
C
865
D
883
28.
A
3272.73
B
3200.75
C
3287.43
D
3460.25
29. If 20% of a number is added to 96, then the result is the same number. 80% of the same number is:
A
106
B
126
C
96
D
116
30. The mother of two sons is 20 years older than her elder son. Five years from now, the elder son will be twice as old as the younger son, and the ratio of their current ages is 3 :
A
35
B
25
C
30
D
40
31. Zubeda’s income is ₹1,20,000. She spends 20% on accommodation, 35% on household expenses, and 25% on other activities. She saves the remaining amount. What are her total savings?
A
₹24,000
B
₹30,000
C
₹29,000
D
₹26,000
32. Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7.5% per annum, respectively. Nirmal borrowed an amount of ₹2,40,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹) between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Nirmal after 2 years.
A
18,700
B
19,200
C
20,200
D
20,700
33. A solid wooden cuboid of dimensions 60 cm × 45 cm × 30 cm is cut completely into smaller cubes of side 5 cm each. Find the number of smaller cubes formed.
A
920
B
622
C
648
D
584
34. A shopkeeper buys a toy for ₹200 and sells it for ₹280. What is his profit percentage?
A
30%
B
35%
C
45%
D
40%
35. One pipe can fill a tank in 8 minutes, while another pipe can empty the completely filled tank in 16 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how many minutes will it take to fill one-half of the tank?
A
8
B
17
C
16
D
9
36. 2 pens and 3 pencils cost ₹35, and 3 pens and 2 pencils cost ₹40. Find the cost of 3 pencils.
A
₹18
B
₹12
C
₹30
D
₹15
37. The value of is:
A
0.44
B
10
C
100
D
1
38. Two trains, 163 m and 117 m long, are moving in the same direction at speeds of 93 km/hr and 33 km/hr, respectively. How much time will the faster train take to completely cross the slower one?
A
15 seconds
B
18 seconds
C
8 seconds
D
16.8 second
39. Find the smallest number to be added to 1000 so that 45 divides the sum exactly. 1265
A
35
B
30
C
25
D
10
40. A dealer marks his goods at 50% above the cost price and allows a discount of 52% on the marked price. What is his loss percentage?
A
28%
B
26%
C
29%
D
27%
41. A byke travels 80 km at the speed of 40 km/hr and the next 30 km at the speed of 10 km/hr. What is its average speed (in km/hr)?
A
26
B
28
C
16
D
22
42. The arithmetic mean of the observations 35, 26, 56, 41, 56, 46, 34, 16 and 68 is:
A
43
B
39
C
50
D
42
43. P is any point inside the rectangle ABCD. If PA = 87 cm, PB = 12 cm and PC = 96 cm, then the length of PD (in cm) is equal to:
A
130
B
129
C
126
D
124
44. A hole can empty a full tank in 1 hour. To maintain the level of water in the tank, 3 filling pipes of equal efficiency are required. How many more such filling pipes are required so that an empty tank gets filled in 3 hours?
A
1
B
3
C
0
D
2
45. Which of the following ratios is equivalent to 5 : 3?
A
53 : 31
B
50 : 30
C
125 : 85
D
48 : 33
46.
A
158
B
152
C
162
D
148
47. The price of fuel decreases by 35%, 60% and 10% in three successive months but increases by 65% in the fourth month. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the price of fuel in the fourth month as compared to its original price?
A
Decreases by 61.39%
B
Increases by 63.54%
C
Decreases by 60.08%
D
Increases by 67.46%
48. ₹3,596 is to be divided among three persons M, N and T. If the shares of M and N are in the ratio 6 : 8 and that of N and T are in the ratio 9 : 6, what is the share (in ₹) of N?
A
1,487
B
1,488
C
1,486
D
1,489
49. Aditya starts from Point A and drives 10 km towards the north. He then takes a right turn, drives 10 km, turns right and drives 20 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 10 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only, unless specified.)
A
7 km towards north
B
7 km towards east
C
9 km towards south
D
3 km towards west
50. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? CER121, IKX98, OQD75, UWJ52, ?
A
BCP29
B
ACP29
C
ACQ29
D
ADP29
51. Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from Left to Right only. (Left) 5 8 7 7 6 3 5 4 8 8 6 2 5 9 2 7 2 4 4 9 9 (Right) How many such odd digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by a perfect square and also immediately followed by an odd digit? 4101
A
Four
B
One
C
Three
D
Two
52. If ‘E’ stands for ‘+’, ‘F’ stands for ‘-’, ‘G’ stands for ‘×’ and ‘H’ stands for ‘÷’, what will come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following equation? 50 E 36 H 6 F 8 G 2 = ?
A
44
B
40
C
38
D
42
53. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? QCW, SDU, UES, WFQ, ?
A
XHO
B
XGP
C
YHP
D
YGO
54. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 36 B 39 A 39 D 48 C 20 = ?
A
9
B
7
C
8
D
10
55. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
QT - NP
B
OR - LO
C
IL - FI
D
MP - JM
56. VK 12 is related to ZP 16 in a certain way. In the same way, RG 15 is related to VL 19. To which of the following is MB 24 related, following the same logic?
A
SG 29
B
PH 29
C
PJ 28
D
QG 28
57. Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 5 6 6 4 1 8 4 9 6 4 9 7 2 2 7 1 4 1 8 7 3 (Right) How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
1
58. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All teas are golds. No tea is a helmet. Conclusions: (I): Some helmets are golds. (II): All golds are helmets.
A
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
B
Only conclusion (II) follows
C
Only conclusion (I) follows
D
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
59. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 441 D 444 C 21 A 21 B 441 = ?
A
525
B
450
C
438
D
665
60. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (5, 28, 15) (29, 102, 17)
A
(47, 142, 3)
B
(7, 34, 10)
C
(37, 115, 1)
D
(4, 20, 5)
61. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 1 5 7 8 = 6 9 2 + 5 7 3 % 7 8 $ 4 1 5 # 8 @ & 4 9 6 (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number? 516
A
One
B
Three
C
Two
D
Four
62. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 88 91 97 106 118 ?
A
125
B
135
C
131
D
133
63. Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing the north. Only two people sit to the left of A. Only three people sit between A and G. D sits second to the right of A. Only two people sit between D and C. E sits at some place to the right of F but at some place to the left of B. How many people sit to the right of C?
A
3
B
2
C
4
D
5
64. Seven boxes M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only two boxes are kept between M and O. Only N is kept above S. No box is kept below O. R is kept at some place below P but at some place above Q. Which box is kept third above Q?
A
P
B
S
C
N
D
M
65. A group of numbers/symbols is coded using letter codes as per the codes given below and the conditions that follow. The correct combination of codes following the conditions is your answer. Note: If none of the conditions apply, then the codes for the respective number/symbol are to be followed directly as given in the table. Conditions: (i) If the first element is a symbol and the last element a perfect square, the codes for these two (the first and last elements) are to be interchanged. (ii) If both the second and third elements are symbols, the third element is to be coded as the code for the second element. (iii) If the first element is a symbol and the fourth element is an odd number, the first and fourth elements are to be coded as ©. What will be the code for the following group? % 5 * 7 $
A
© J F S ©
B
U J J S E
C
© J F © E
D
E J F S U
66. Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) 3 & 6 © 3 6 © € % 6 & 4 9 5 4 % € £ $ % 9 1 (Right) How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A
3
B
2
C
1
D
4
67. WPGB is related to AKKW in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, MVWH is related to QQAC. To which of the following options is YGIS related, following the same logic? 9954
A
CBMN
B
CNJI
C
CBMJ
D
CBNJ
68. In a certain code language, ‘shirt mug care’ is coded as 'eu cp zi' and ‘zebra shirt ghost’ is coded as ‘cp eb il’. How is ‘shirt’ coded in the given language?
A
zi
B
cp
C
eu
D
eb
69. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 221 223 227 233 241 ?
A
253
B
251
C
255
D
249
70. Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit to the left of E. Only one person sits between A and C. F sits to the immediate left of E. A sits to the immediate right of D. C sits third to the right of B. Who sits at the extreme left end of the row?
A
C
B
D
C
E
D
B
71. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 273 274 266 267 259 260 ?
A
253
B
251
C
250
D
252
72. In a certain code language, P + Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’, P # Q means ‘P is the sister of Q’, P & Q means ‘P is the brother of Q’ and P % Q means ‘P is the father of Q’. How is D related to W if ‘D & E # F % L & W’?
A
Father's mother
B
Mother's father
C
Father's brother
D
Mother's brother
73. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All hammers are jacks. All hammers are metals. Conclusions: (I) Some jacks are metals. (II) All metals are hammers.
A
Only conclusion (II) follows.
B
Only conclusion (I) follows.
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
74. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
RJ – TF
B
KP – ML
C
DM – FI
D
LS – JO
75. All 20 students in a class are standing in a row facing north. Raveena is 10 th from the right end while Deepa is 4 th from the left end. How many people stand between Raveena and Deepa?
A
5
B
7
C
8
D
6
76. In the following triad, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. SINK - ISNK - KISN PLAY - LPAY - YLPA
A
WAIT - WIAT - TIAW
B
YOUR - OYUR - OURY
C
READ - ERAD - DERA
D
NAME - ANME - EAMN
77. Seven people B, C, D, I, J, K, and L are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. L sits third to the left of I. Only one person sits between K and B, when counted from the left of B. C sits third to the right of D. C sits to the immediate right of L. J is not an immediate neighbour of L. How many people sit between J and B, when counted from the right of J?
A
One
B
Three
C
Four
D
Two
78. Town P is to the west of Town Q. Town R is to the north of Town P. Town S is to the east of Town R. Town T is to the south of Town S. Town Q is to the southeast of Town T. What is the position of Town P with respect to Town T?
A
Southwest
B
Northeast
C
Southeast
D
Northwest
79. Who set a new world record by becoming the first man to cross 75 metres in discus throw at the World Athletics Continental Tour in Ramona, April 2025?
A
Kristjan Č eh
B
Mykolas Alekna
C
Robert Harting
D
Gerd Kanter
80. In which city were the Khelo India Para Games 2025, a significant event under the Khelo India scheme, held?
A
Chennai
B
Mumbai
C
Kolkata
D
New Delhi
81. Which Paralympic swimmer won a Laureus award in 2025 for disability sport?
A
Anna Grimaldi
B
Chloe Kim
C
Yuto Horigome
D
Jiang Yuyan
82. The 10 th Governing Council Meeting of NITI Aayog on 24 May 2025 was held in which city of India?
A
Mumbai
B
Jaipur
C
New Delhi
D
Surat
83. As per the Economic Survey 2024–25, which scheme electrified over 18,000 villages in rural India?
A
Pradhan Mantri Nayi Roshni Yojana (PMNRY)
B
Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY)
C
Unnat Jyoti by Affordable LEDs for All (UJALA)
D
Ujwal Discom Assurance Yojana (UDAY)
84. What is the name of India’s proposed space station?
A
ISRO Sky Lab Station
B
Indian Orbital Base Station
C
Vyom Station
D
Bharatiya Antariksh Station
85. What is the new upper limit for no personal income tax payable under the new tax regime as per Union Budget 2025–26?
A
₹12 lakh
B
₹10 lakh
C
₹13 lakh
D
₹11 lakh
86. In June 2025, with which of the following countries did Kolkata-based Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Limited (GRSE) sign an MoU to build the India’s first ever Polar Research Vessel (PRV) indigenously?
A
Austria
B
Malta
C
Norway
D
Belgium
87. The Indian Navy’s home-built Shivalik-class stealth frigate equipped with guided missiles that took part in the JAIMEX-25 naval exercise held from 16 to 18 October 2025 was ______.
A
INS Sahyadri
B
INS Satpura
C
INS Kolkata
D
INS Shivalik
88. In 2025, which ministry of the Government of India organised Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan for ranking air quality in Indian cities?
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Environment
C
Ministry of Home Affairs
D
Ministry of Education
89. With which government did the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change sign a Memorandum of Cooperation on Joint Crediting Mechanism (JCM) under Article 6.2 of the Paris Agreement on Climate Change, in August 2025?
A
Brazil
B
Germany
C
Belgium
D
Japan
90. In 2025, which of the following new mottos was adopted by the Lokpal of India?
A
Empower Citizens, Expose Corruption
B
Fight Corruption, Build Nation
C
Transparency for All
D
Integrity is Strength
91. Who among the following was awarded the Arjuna Award in 2025 for their performance in para-athletics?
A
Gukesh D
B
Manu Bhaker
C
Deepthi Jeevanji
D
Harmanpreet Singh
92. What was the name of the new Indian Army Research Cell inaugurated at IIT Madras in August 2025?
A
Agnishodh
B
Agni Kavach
C
Agnivira
D
Agnipath
93. Which Indian Navy ships took part in Operation Brahma in March 2025?
A
INS Vikrant and INS Arihant
B
INS Satpura and INS Savitri
C
INS Vikramaditya and INS Vishal
D
INS Chennai and INS Kesari
94. Which of the following two countries hosted the Second G20 Anti-Corruption Working Group in June 2025?
A
Brazil and South Africa
B
India and South Africa
C
South Africa and Germany
D
Indonesia and Brazil
95. As of July 2025, what was the total quantity of narcotics seized in Jammu & Kashmir since 2018, under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act (NDPSA)?
A
87,713 kg
B
19,353 kg
C
1,12,000 kg
D
27,000 kg
96. In 2025, why did National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) and Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) sign an agreement?
A
To study city temperatures
B
To launch online banking websites
C
To train people for emergencies
D
To improve farming that can handle climate change
97. Which of the following has been declared a Tiger Reserve in 2025?
A
Dholpur – Karauli Tiger Reserve
B
Madhav Tiger Reserve
C
Parambikulam Tiger Reserve
D
Ranipur Tiger Reserve
98. On which date was World Malaria Day 2025 observed with the theme Malaria Ends with Us: Reinvest, Reimagine, Reignite?
A
March 22
B
April 25
C
April 10
D
May 5 "
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