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Group D — Test 39
00:00
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01. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Earth is given by:
A
g = R2/GM
B
g = GM/R
C
g = GM
D
g = GM/R2
02. Which of the following statements is true about potential energy?
A
It cannot be converted into kinetic energy.
B
It is always zero at the ground level.
C
It depends only on mass.
D
It can be negative depending on the reference point.
03. If 100 J of work is required to transfer 5 C of charge between two points, the potential difference between the points is:
A
20 V
B
50 V
C
10 V
D
25 V
04. Which cell organelle is responsible for packaging and dispatching materials within or outside the cell?
A
Mitochondria
B
Nucleus
C
Ribosome
D
Golgi apparatus
05. Which of the following methods of reproduction is found in Plasmodium?
A
Grafting
B
Layering
C
Multiple fission
D
Budding
06. Why did Mendel use true-breeding plants as parents in his crosses?
A
To get large number of plants quickly
B
To study environmental effects on growth of plants
C
To study inheritance patterns
D
To grow them in similar soil condition
07. The refractive index of the second medium with respect to the first depends on the:
A
colour (wavelength) of light used and the pair of media
B
shape of the boundary surface only
C
intensity of the incident light
D
temperature of the surroundings only
08. Which of the following statements regarding the need for macronutrients in plants is correct?
A
Macronutrients are needed only during flowering.
B
Macronutrients are harmful to plants if absorbed.
C
Macronutrients are not required by plants at all.
D
Macronutrients are required by plants in large quantities.
09. Which metal lies between magnesium and iron in the activity series?
A
Silver
B
Potassium
C
Zinc
D
Copper
10. Which of the following methods is commonly used to prevent rancidity in packaged food items?
A
Heating the food before packing
B
Flushing with nitrogen gas before sealing
C
Adding acids to the food
D
Storing food in oxygen-rich containers
11. Which of the following is an example of a decomposition reaction?
A
Mg + O ₂ → MgO
B
Na + Cl ₂ → NaCl
C
H ₂ + O ₂ → H ₂ O
D
CaCO ₃ → CaO + CO ₂
12. What is anode mud?
A
Soluble impurities in solution in electrolytic refining
B
Insoluble impurities settle at anode in electrolytic refining
C
A solution of soil and water
D
Insoluble impurities settle at cathode in electrolytic refining
13. Which of the following correctly compares the cell wall and cell membrane in plant and animal cells?
A
Both plant and animal cells have a cell wall but only plant cells have a cell membrane.
B
Neither plant nor animal cells have a cell wall, but both have a cell membrane.
C
Animal cells have both a rigid cell wall and a cell membrane, while plant cells only have a flexible cell membrane.
D
Plant cells have both a rigid cell wall and a cell membrane, while animal cells only have a flexible cell membrane.
14. Which of the following correctly shows the relationship between magnification (M), the object distances (u) and image- distance (v)?
A
Magnification = v/u
B
Magnification = u/v
C
Magnification = v × u
D
Magnification = u + v
15. Which of the following is a part of the central nervous system in human?
A
Pharynx
B
Cranial nerves
C
Spinal nerves
D
Spinal cord
16. The process of fission in an amoeba results in the formation of ____________.
A
four genetically different daughter cells
B
two similar sized, genetically identical daughter cells
C
a small daughter cell and a large mother cell that are genetically different
D
a large number of small, genetically identical daughter cells
17. Which of the following is an application of ultrasound in industry?
A
Increasing the speed of sound in solids
B
Detecting cracks in metal blocks
C
Making objects lighter in weight
D
Used in refrigerators for cooling
18. Which of the following living organisms have bones that help in body movements?
A
Earthworm
B
Cockroach
C
Snake
D
Snail
19. A boy walks from one end A to the other end B of a straight 1000 m road in 2 minutes and then turns around and walks 400 m back to point C in another 2 minutes. What will be the average velocity (in m/s) of the boy in going from point A to point C?
A
15
B
2.5
C
150
D
25
20. According to Ohm’s law, the ratio of potential difference (V) across a conductor to the current (I) through it is constant, provided _______.
A
resistance changes
B
voltage is zero
C
temperature remains constant
D
current is very high
21. Three solutions A, B, and C have pH values of 3, 7, and 12, respectively. Which of the following statements is correct?
A
Solution A and C both are neutral.
B
Solution A is strongly acidic, and solution C is strongly basic.
C
Solution B is basic and solution C is acidic.
D
Solution C is neutral while solution A is basic.
22. Which of the following is NOT correct for uniform velocity?
A
Velocity is constant and acceleration is zero.
B
The v–t graph is a horizontal line.
C
The slope of the line in v-t graph is zero.
D
The area under the v–t graph gives acceleration.
23. Which of the following is the correct symbol for the element lead?
A
Pb
B
Lb
C
Ld
D
Le
24. The phenomenon of spreading out and mixing of a substance with another substance due to the motion of its particles is called which of the following?
A
Diffusion
B
Sublimation
C
Evaporation
D
Condensation
25. The Law of Conservation of Mass was given by:
A
Joseph Proust
B
John Dalton
C
Antoine Lavoisier
D
Ernest Rutherford
26. The ratio of the curved surface area to the total surface area of a solid cylinder is 3 : 5. If its volume is 12,936 cm 3 , what is its height?
A
28 cm
B
21 cm
C
14 cm
D
18 cm
27. The prices of articles of types P, Q and R are ₹280, ₹180 and ₹100, respectively. Rajiv purchases these articles in the ratio 3 : 4 : 3, spending a total of ₹27,900. How many articles of type Q did he buy?
A
84
B
60
C
48
D
72
28. A shopkeeper declares the given three schemes of discounts. Which of the following schemes is most beneficial to a customer?
A
Both A and C
B
Only B
C
Only C
D
Only A
29. The average age of 42 students in a class is 14 years. If the age of the teacher is also included, the average age of the whole group becomes 15 years. The age (in years) of the teacher is:
A
65
B
59
C
57
D
60
30. The sides of a triangle are 37 cm, 44 cm and 15 cm. What is the length of its altitude corresponding to the side with the length of 44 cm?
A
16 cm
B
45 cm
C
12 cm
D
33 cm
31. Simplify: 57 − [82 − (72 ÷ 3 − (17 − 40 ÷ 5) ÷ 9)]
A
3
B
−8
C
−9
D
−2
32. In 540 litres solution of acid and water, the ratio of acid and water is 2 : 10. How many litres of acid must be added to it to get the solution in which the ratio of acid and water is 9 : 5? 5675
A
719
B
718
C
721
D
720
33. The price of fuel decreases by 50%, 35% and 50% in three successive months, but increases by 45% in the fourth month. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the price of fuel in the fourth month as compared to its original price? (Round off the answer to two decimal places)
A
Increases by 80.11%
B
Increases by 81.75%
C
Decreases by 76.44%
D
Decreases by 74.19%
34. A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 3, 4 and 6 days, respectively. How long (in days) will they take to complete thrice the same work, working together? 2516
A
12
B
5
C
8
D
4
35. If 20% of a number is added to 96, then the result is the same number. 65% of the same number is:
A
108
B
98
C
78
D
88
36. ‘A’ buys an air conditioner for ₹1,50,000 and sells it to ‘B’ at a loss of 30%. ‘B’ then sells it to ‘C’ at a profit of 5% on his cost price. What is the cost price (in ₹) of the air conditioner for ‘C’?
A
1,25,480
B
1,10,250
C
75,250
D
2,10,350
37. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 5. If 9 is added to this number, the digits interchange their places. Find the number.
A
14
B
23
C
32
D
41
38. What is the average speed of a bus which covers half the distance at a speed of 72 km/hr and the other half at a speed of 90 km/hr? 3565
A
84 km/hr
B
80 km/hr
C
77 km/hr
D
83 km/hr
39. 3176
A
78
B
76
C
81
D
73
40. From a point 40 m away from the foot of a tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is 45°. Find the height of the tower.
A
40 m
B
45 m
C
48 m
D
20 m
41. In a presentation competition, Group Leo can complete a task in 9 days, while Group Tiger can finish it in 18 days if they work alone. If both groups work together, in how many days will they complete the task?
A
6 days
B
10 days
C
5 days
D
7 days
42. The amount on a sum of ₹5,200 at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded annually, in 2 years will be:
A
₹5,569
B
₹6,292
C
₹5,991
D
₹5,552
43. A cricketer has an average of 68 runs over 9 innings. If he scores 130 runs in the 10 th inning, by how many runs (rounded off to the nearest whole number) does his average score increase?
A
15
B
7
C
6
D
10
44. The marked price of a television set is ₹35,000. A shopkeeper allows a discount of 22% and gets a profit of 75%. What is the cost price of the television set?
A
₹15,714
B
₹15,570
C
₹15,662
D
₹15,600
45. The greatest number that will divide 45, 95 and 185, so as to leave the same remainder in each case is:
A
45
B
95
C
185
D
10
46. 4 men can do a piece of work in 27 days. How many men will do it in 18 days?
A
9
B
7
C
6
D
8
47. Rahul’s present age is two-seventh of the present age of his grandmother. After 16 years, his age will be two-fifth of the age of his grandmother at that time. Find the present age of his grandmother.
A
100 years
B
84 years
C
97 years
D
90 years
48. RVSQ is related to OSPN in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ZDAY is related to WAXV. To which of the given options is SWTR related, following the same logic?
A
PTQO
B
PUPY
C
PTPO
D
PSPO
49. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (8, 64, 8) (4, 16, 4) 4141
A
(5, 125, 5)
B
(2, 8, 2)
C
(3, 9, 4)
D
(9, 81, 9)
50. O, P, Q, R, W, X, and Y are sitting in a straight line facing the north. Only two people sit to the right of X. Only two people sit between X and Q. Only two people sit between O and P. P sits to the immediate left of X. R sits to the immediate right of Y. Who sits at the third position from the left end of the line?
A
Y
B
P
C
O
D
W
51. Samar starts from point A and drives 58 km towards north. He then takes a right turn, drives 64 km, turns right and drives 63 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 66 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 5 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again? (Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
3 km to the west
B
1 km to the east
C
4 km to the west
D
2 km to the east
52. Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) % * 7 % € % 2 # € $ € © 9 5 6 # 9 & 6 % 7 & (Right) How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
0
53. Seven boxes B, C, D, I, J, K and L are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only four boxes are kept above L. Only one box is kept above J. Only one box is kept between J and C. B is kept immediately above D. K is kept at some place below I. How many boxes are kept between I and B? 7082
A
Three
B
Four
C
Two
D
One
54. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
GA-DI
B
JD-GK
C
NH-KO
D
LF-IM
55. EFHL is related to AALQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, OLXF is related to KGBK. To which of the given options is CWJU related, following the same logic? 9950
A
YRNZ
B
YGHU
C
YRTY
D
YRZN
56. Refer to the given number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) 1 9 5 4 2 9 7 4 6 3 7 8 9 7 4 9 6 3 1 7 8 4 6 8 7 2 5 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
Two
B
More than three
C
Three
D
One
57. In a certain code language, ‘technology is advancing’ is coded as ‘mn jk rs’ and ‘humanity needs technology’ is coded as ‘ap mn fg’. How is ‘technology’ coded in the given language? 8994
A
mn
B
rs
C
fg
D
jk
58. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
OS-NR
B
MQ-LO
C
IM-HK
D
KO-JM
59. If + means - , - means x , x means ÷ , ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 18 - 6 ÷ 228 + 46 x 2 = ?
A
334
B
326
C
309
D
313
60. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? KR37 MT45 OV53 QX61 ?
A
SZ68
B
SY69
C
SZ69
D
SY68
61. Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 9 7 8 1 7 5 8 7 2 7 6 5 8 5 7 5 4 1 8 6 3 3 4 5 9 4 4 (Right) How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
4
B
1
C
3
D
2
62. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? OPD73, RMG70, UJJ67, ?
A
XGM64
B
XHN63
C
YGN64
D
YHM63
63. Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit to the left of F. Only one person sits between D and E. F sits to the immediate left of D. A sits to the immediate right of C. B sits third to the right of A. Who sits at the extreme left end of the line?
A
A
B
D
C
C
D
B
64. QP 7 is related to TO −4 in a certain way. In the same way, AL 14 is related to DK 3. To which of the given options is RX 2 related, following the same logic?
A
TV −7
B
UV −7
C
TW −9
D
UW −9
65. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation? 45 A 9 B 13 C 15 D 17 = ?
A
63
B
62
C
64
D
61
66. In a certain code language, ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the son of B’ ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’ ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ Based on the above, how is D related to J if ‘D × F + G – H ÷ J’?
A
Mother's brother's son's wife
B
Father's brother's son's wife
C
Mother's brother's son's daughter
D
Father's brother's son's daughter
67. Seven people, B, C, D, I, J, K and L, are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table. K sits third to the left of L. I sits to the immediate left of L. D sits to the immediate left of J. J sits second to the left of C. Who sits third to the right of B?
A
K
B
C
C
D
D
J
68. Vaibhav ranked 9 th from the top and 17 th from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in the class?
A
22
B
21
C
25
D
26
69. Shruti starts from Point A and drives 12 km towards the south. She then takes a left turn, drives 8 km, turns right and drives 4 km. She then takes a right turn and drives 12 km. She then takes a right turn and drives 10 km. She takes a final right turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point D. How far (shortest distance) and in which direction is Point D with respect to Point A? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
A
7 km towards the west
B
6 km towards the south
C
5 km towards the north
D
6 km towards the east
70. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statement(s). Statements: All helmets are mats. All helmets are bottles. Conclusions: (I) Some mats are bottles. (II) All bottles are helmets.
A
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
B
Only conclusion (I) follows
C
Only conclusion (II) follows
D
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
71. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 88 75 62 49 36 ?
A
25
B
23
C
21
D
27
72. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 5 2 1 4 7 8 6 5 2 3 9 1 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
A
Two
B
One
C
Four
D
Three
73. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 312 313 303 305 295 298 ?
A
286
B
287
C
288
D
285
74. Each of the digits in the number 5493218 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. What will be the sum of the digits which are second from the left and second from the right in the new number thus formed? 4368
A
10
B
5
C
8
D
12
75. In a certain code language, ‘uncle ocean elf’ is coded as ‘so ex rj’ and ‘elf yak queen’ is coded as ‘ku yi ex’. How is ‘elf’ coded in that language?
A
ex
B
so
C
ku
D
rj
76. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statement(s). Statements: All actors are dancers. All dancers are magicians. Conclusions: (I) All magicians are actors. (II) No dancer is an actor. 11666
A
Neither follows
B
Only I follows
C
Only II follows
D
Both follow
77. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 7 9 13 19 27 37 ?
A
52
B
50
C
49
D
51
78. In June 2025, which companies received the technology for the 70-ton Tank Transporter Trailer for MBT Arjun Mk-1A?
A
Bharat Forge, Dass Hitachi Ltd, John Galt International
B
Bharat Electronics Ltd, Tata Advanced Systems Ltd, John Galt International
C
Metaltech Motor Bodies Pvt Ltd, Goma Engineering Pvt Ltd, John Galt International
D
BEML Ltd, Tata International Vehicle Applications, SDR Auto Pvt Ltd, John Galt International
79. Which of the following institutions launched a ₹5,000 crore green bond as part of its ₹30,000 crore Government Securities (G-Sec) auction in June 2025?
A
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
B
Exim Bank of India
C
Securities and Exchange Board of India
D
Reserve Bank of India
80. In October 2025, the Delhi government in collaboration with the Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur, implemented which of the following techniques to combat air pollution?
A
Installing large-scale vertical gardens across industrial zones
B
Cloud seeding to induce rainfall and reduce air pollution
C
Using fog cannons to disperse smog particles in polluted areas
D
Launching aerial drones to monitor and neutralise toxic gases
81. Who among the following received the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2025?
A
Virat Kohli
B
Manu Bhaker
C
Saina Nehwal
D
Neeraj Chopra
82. What has the Supreme Court made mandatory for judicial service applicants in May 2025?
A
Court clerk experience
B
Three years of legal practice
C
Five years of teaching
D
Law degree only
83. Who won the gold in the Men's Singles SL3 at the 2025 Asia Para Badminton Championship?
A
Pramod Bhagat
B
Umesh Vikram Kumar
C
Nitesh Kumar
D
Naveen Shivakumar
84. Under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry (via Startup India), which of the following schemes saw a government allocation of ₹211 crore into the Indian space-tech sector in 2025?
A
Atmanirbhar Bharat Innovation Fund (ABIF)
B
Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS)
C
Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS)
D
Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS)
85. The Ministry of Heavy Industries, Government of India, introduced a programme in July 2025 to give financial support for electric trucks under ______.
A
PM E-DRIVE initiative
B
PM Green Transport Initiative
C
PM Electric Vehicle Boost
D
PM E-Mobility Drive
86. Which state launched new minority welfare schemes in September 2025, the Revanth Anna ka Sahara-Miskeen la Kosam, focusing on women empowerment and financial assistance?
A
Telangana
B
Kerala
C
Maharashtra
D
Gujarat
87. Which institute partnered with NDMA in 2025 to develop tunnel safety guidelines?
A
IIT Delhi
B
IIT Bombay
C
IIT Kharagpur
D
IIT Madras
88. What is the duration of the Iran–Russia partnership treaty, signed on 17 January 2025?
A
25 years
B
20 years
C
10 years
D
15 years
89. Who became the Chairperson of ISRO in January 2025?
A
Dr. V Narayanan
B
K Radhakrishnan
C
A Sivathanu Pillai
D
S Somanath
90. Which young swimmer matched Michael Phelps’s achievement by setting three individual world records at one meet during the Canadian Trials?
A
Athing Mu-Nikolayev
B
Sydney McLaughlin-Levrone
C
Beatrice Chebet
D
Summer McIntosh
91. As per the Transparency International report released in February 2025, what was India’s rank in the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) 2024?
A
89
B
93
C
96
D
102
92. What is the percentage of the Contingent Risk Buffer set by the Reserve Bank of India in May 2025 for FY 2024–25?
A
8.0%
B
7.5%
C
5.0%
D
6.5%
93. Which of the following international organisations celebrated its 80 th anniversary on June 26, 2025, marking the signing of its charter?
A
International Monetary Fund (IMF)
B
World Bank
C
United Nations
D
NATO
94. What is the total number of Padma Awards given in 2025?
A
130
B
153
C
120
D
139
95. According to the Sustainable Development Goals National Indicator Framework progress report, 2025, published in June 2025, the number of waste recycling plants in India increased from 829 in 2019–20 to 3,036 in 2024–25. This improvement primarily contributes to which Sustainable Development Goal (SDG)?
A
SDG 6
B
SDG 2
C
SDG 15
D
SDG 12
96. Who won his first major Indian Golf Union title, the IGU Southern India Junior Boys Golf Championship, played at Coimbatore Golf Club from 27 May to 30 May 2025?
A
Gaganjeet Bhullar
B
Harjai Milkha Singh
C
Shiv Kapur
D
Shubhankar Sharma
97. In November 2025, India conducted the bilateral military exercise ‘AJEYA WARRIOR-25’ with which of the following countries?
A
United Kingdom
B
United States
C
France
D
Russia "
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