Home
📝 TNPSC
📊 Maths
🚆 RRB
💼 Jobs
📚 Notes
📄 Docs
🏆 Tournament
LIVE
👥 Groups
Login
Register Free
🎯 Quiz Universe
Login
✕
👤
Welcome!
Login to access all features
Free Platform
TNPSC Prep
Main Menu
🏠
Home
📝
TNPSC
📊
Maths Tests
⚡
Maths Practice
🚆
RRB Exams
💼
Job Alerts
📚
Study Notes
📄
Documents
📋
OMR Tests
🏆
Tournament
LIVE
🥇
Leaderboard
👥
Study Groups
Account
🔐
Login
✏️
Register Free
Info
❓
Help & Support
NEW
ℹ️
About Us
📬
Contact Us
🔒
Privacy Policy
📋
Terms & Conditions
⚠️
Disclaimer
Group D — Test 38
00:00
1
📋 Questions
✕
Answered
Current
Unanswered
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
01. Which element has mass number 27 and 14 neutrons present in it?
A
Magnesium
B
Sodium
C
Chlorine
D
Aluminium
02. Which of the following statements is correct about the concept of 'molecules of compounds'?
A
A molecule of a compound is formed by the combination of atoms of different elements.
B
A molecule of a compound is formed by the separation of atoms of the same element.
C
A molecule of a compound is formed by the separation of atoms of different elements.
D
A molecule of a compound is formed by the combination of atoms of the same element.
03. Which of the following is NOT correct?
A
Multiple reflections can cause reverberation
B
Multiple reflections change the pitch of sound
C
Multiple reflections improve sound distribution in large halls
D
Multiple reflections are undesirable in small rooms
04. The energy possessed by a body due to its position or configuration is called ________.
A
Thermal energy
B
Kinetic energy
C
Potential energy
D
Chemical energy
05. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of short-duration crop varieties?
A
Possibility of multiple cropping
B
Reduced production cost
C
Quick harvesting
D
Higher chances of crop damage
06. Which of the following elements is classified exclusively as a non-metal under standard conditions?
A
Zinc
B
Hydrogen
C
Mercury
D
Silver
07. If both current and resistance are halved, the power reduces to _______.
A
one-fourth of the initial value
B
one-third of the initial value
C
half of the initial value
D
one-eighth of the initial value
08. Which of the following solutions will contain the highest concentration of H ⁺ ions?
A
Solution with pH 10
B
Solution with pH 13
C
Solution with pH 3
D
Solution with pH 7
09. In a starch test using a variegated leaf, what is the purpose of adding iodine solution at the end?
A
To stain the starch present in the leaf
B
To identify the areas without chloroplasts
C
To dissolve starch
D
To remove chlorophyll from green areas
10. Covalent bonds are formed by:
A
Sharing of electrons
B
Loss of protons
C
Gain of neutrons
D
Transfer of electrons
11. Which of the following compounds is a saturated hydrocarbon?
A
Propyne
B
Benzene
C
Propene
D
Cyclohexane
12. Which mirror is used by a dentist to see the inside of a patient’s mouth?
A
Concave mirror
B
Convex mirror
C
Planoconvex mirror
D
Plane mirror
13. How long does an unfertilised egg typically survive in the female reproductive tract?
A
10 hours
B
24 hours
C
72 hours
D
60 hours
14. A particle moves in a circle of radius 1.5 m with angular velocity 3 rad/s. What will the ratio of its linear velocity to angular velocity be?
A
1 : 2
B
3 : 2
C
2 : 1
D
2 : 3
15. What is associated with a metallic wire carrying an electric current?
A
No physical effect
B
A magnetic field around it
C
Only heat
D
Only electric potential
16. Read the following statements carefully and select the correct option. Assertion (A): In the reaction of copper with oxygen, oxygen acts as the reducing agent. Reason (R): Oxygen adds to copper forming copper oxide.
A
A is true, but R is false.
B
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
C
Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
D
A is false, but R is true.
17. Which feature of Spirogyra allows fragmentation to be successful?
A
Presence of seeds
B
Single-celled structure
C
Simple filamentous body
D
Complex tissues
18. An object floats on water if ________.
A
Its density is greater than water
B
Its volume is very small
C
Its weight is zero
D
Its density is less than water
19. Why is a transportation system essential for excretion in multicellular organisms?
A
To produce oxygen in cells
B
To circulate digestive enzymes
C
To help with reproduction
D
To move waste products to the organs that remove them
20. Which of the following is a crop variety improvement method by introducing a gene that would provide the desired characteristics?
A
Grafting
B
Budding
C
Natural vegetative reproduction
D
Genetically modified crops
21. Which compound is used to prepare bleaching powder?
A
Calcium Hydroxide
B
Calcium Chloride
C
Sodium Carbonate
D
Ammonium Hydroxide Q . 2 2 A A. n s B. C. D.
22. Which of the following organs is a part of the human female reproductive system?
A
Vas Deferens
B
Uterus
C
Prostate Gland
D
Testis
23. Why does the growth of an onion root stop after its tip is cut?
A
The meristematic cells lose their vacuoles.
B
The intercalary meristem starts working.
C
The lateral meristem gets damaged.
D
The apical meristem that produces new cells is removed.
24. Which of the following statements about the centre of curvature of a spherical mirror is NOT true?
A
For a concave mirror, it is located behind the mirror.
B
For a convex mirror, it lies behind the mirror.
C
It lies outside the reflecting surface of the mirror.
D
It is not a part of the mirror itself.
25. At present, Amar is 5 years younger than Ravi. After four years from now, Ravi will be twice as old as Amar. Find Amar’s present age (in years).
A
6
B
2
C
4
D
1
26. The average age of 51 students of a class is 21 years. If the age of the teacher is also included, the average age of the whole group becomes 22 years. The age (in years) of the teacher is:
A
70
B
74
C
71
D
73
27. 8 men and 3 women can complete a piece of work in 15 days, and 14 men and 19 women can complete the same work in 5 days. The work of how many women is equivalent to that of one man?
A
4
B
1
C
2
D
3
28. Consider a cube of edge 5 cm and a cuboid with dimensions 7 × 4 × 2cm. Which of them has the larger volume?
A
Cannot be determined
B
Both occupy equal space
C
Only cuboid
D
Only cube
29. A certain sum of money amounts to ₹12,000 in 3 years and ₹16,000 in 5 years on simple interest. Find the principal.
A
₹5,500
B
₹6,000
C
₹5,200
D
₹6,200
30. A train overtakes two people walking along a railway track. The first person walks at 7.2 km/hr, and the second person walks at 14.4 km/hr. The train takes 29.9 seconds to pass the first person and 43.7 seconds to pass the second person. What is the speed of the train if both are walking in the same direction as the train?
A
27 km/hr
B
38 km/hr
C
36 km/hr
D
30 km/hr
31. An Uber cab covers a distance of 640 km in 80 hours. What is its speed in km/hr?
A
8
B
3
C
16
D
12
32. Meera purchased 23 bracelets at ₹160 each. At what rate per bracelet must she sell them to earn a 15% profit?
A
₹198
B
₹184
C
₹186
D
₹192
33. In an election with three candidates—Ram, Mohan, and Sohan—10% of the total votes cast were invalid. Sohan received 40% of the valid votes. If Ram got 2,000 more valid votes than Mohan and the total number of votes cast was 10,000, what is the remainder when Ram's votes are divided by Mohan's votes?
A
320
B
490
C
400
D
300
34. A rectangle's length is three times its width. If its perimeter is 160 cm, then its width (in cm) is:
A
15
B
22
C
18
D
20
35. If the mode of the given data is 22.75, find the median. (Round off to two decimal places) Class Interval 0-7 7-14 14-21 21-28 28-35 35-42 Frequency 1 7 9 11 X 3
A
32.25
B
24.25
C
36.25
D
21.64
36. Simplify the following expression. (8 × 8 − 8 + 4) ÷ 10 + (4 × 4 + 4 + 4 ÷ 4) × 3 + 2 of 26 ÷ 4
A
69
B
89
C
72
D
82 A dealer purchased a laptop for ₹99,000. He allows a discount of 37% on its marked price and
37. still gains 40%. Find the marked price of the laptop.
A
₹2,19,878
B
₹2,20,000
C
₹2,19,903
D
₹2,20,172
38. The length, breadth and height of a room are in the ratio 3 : 2 : 1. If the breadth and height are each reduced to half their original values while the length is doubled, find the percentage change (rounded off to two decimal places) in the total surface area of the room.
A
Decrease by 13.46%
B
Decrease by 13.64%
C
Increase by 13.64%
D
Increase by 13.46%
39. The cost price of the box of sharpener is ₹1,150. The shopkeeper gave 12% discount on the cost price. What is the selling price (in ₹)? 641
A
1,012
B
1,095
C
1,074
D
955
40. If the exterior angles obtained on producing the base YZ of a triangle XYZ in both ways are 110° and 115°, then the measure of ∠ X is:
A
three fourth of a right angle
B
one fourth of a right angle
C
one fourth of a straight angle
D
equal to right angle
41. Prakhar and Riya together invested ₹31,600 in a business. At the end of the year, out of a total profit of ₹7,900, Prakhar's share was ₹1,400. What was the investment of Prakhar?
A
₹6,500
B
₹4,600
C
₹4,200
D
₹5,600
42. Find the greatest possible length which can be used to measure exactly the lengths 42 m, 63 m and 140 m.
A
32 m
B
22 m
C
5 m
D
7 m
43. If the third proportional of 4 and 24 is x, then what is the value of x?
A
141
B
146
C
144
D
142
44. What must be the total percentage change in the volume of a cuboid, if it's length and breadth are decreased by 10% and 20% respectively, while it's height is increased by 35%?
A
2.8% decrease in volume
B
197.2% increase in volume
C
10.5% decrease in volume
D
4.68% increase in volume
45. If 20% of a number is added to 90, then the result is the same number. 60% of the same number is:
A
77.5
B
87.5
C
97.5
D
67.5
46. A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 3, 6 and 2 days, respectively. How long (in days) will they take to complete thrice the same work, working together? 2518
A
3
B
9
C
6
D
4
47. code for ‘D’ in that language?
A
7
B
2
C
3
D
0
48. Suraj starts from Point A and travels 8 km to the north. He then takes a right turn and travels 9 km, takes another right turn and travels 10 km, then takes a left turn and travels 5 km. Finally, he takes a left turn and travels 2 km to reach Point B. How far (shortest distance) and in which direction must he travel to return to Point A? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
1 km towards the east
B
11 km towards the west
C
6 km towards the south
D
14 km towards the west
49. Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 7 7 7 8 5 4 1 7 5 1 9 4 5 8 1 1 4 5 1 2 8 6 9 7 4 2 6 (Right) How many such even numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number? 15219
A
6
B
7
C
5
D
4
50. XVYC is related to DBEI in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, PNQU is related to VTWA. To which of the given options is BZCG related, following the same logic?
A
HGHO
B
HFIM
C
HFHM
D
HEHM
51. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? GJD24 HKE33 ILF42 JMG51 ?
A
KNG61
B
KNG60
C
KNH61
D
KNH60
52. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
TSW
B
VVY
C
DCG
D
LKO
53. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All bins are cans. All plastics are cans. Conclusions: (I): Some bins are plastics. (II): Some cans are plastics.
A
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
B
Only conclusion (I) follows
C
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
D
Only conclusion (II) follows BGJO is related to HIPQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same
54. way, ZOHW is related to FQNY. To which of the given options is RUZC related, following the same logic? 9949
A
XWFE
B
XWQA
C
XWRT
D
XWIO
55. Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two set of pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. KIJ−NLM YWX−BZA 6439
A
IGH−LJK
B
IFF−LJK
C
IFF−KIJ
D
IGH−KJJ
56. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 7 9 1 8 4 2 5 6 3 8 7 1 9 (Right) How many odd numbers are there which are immediately followed by even numbers?
A
Two
B
Three
C
One
D
More than three
57. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
CY – KR
B
QM – YF
C
HD – PW
D
BX – IQ
58. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? OSJ MQH KOF IMD ?
A
GKB
B
GLA
C
GLB
D
GKA
59. Town W is to the south of Town X. Town Y is to the east of Town W. Town Z is to the north of Town Y. Town A is to the west of Town Z. Town X is to the north-east of Town A. What is the position of Town W with respect to Town A?
A
Northwest
B
Northeast
C
Southwest
D
Southeast
60. Five people, A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row, facing north. D sits at the extreme left end of the line. E sits third to the right of A. B sits to the immediate right of A. How many people sit(s) between D and E? 6099
A
3
B
0
C
1
D
2
61. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some Reds are Emeralds. No Emeralds are Magentas. All Magentas are Greens. Conclusion (I): Some Magentas are Emeralds Conclusion (II): Some Emeralds are Greens
A
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
B
Only conclusion (I) follows.
C
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
D
Only conclusion (II) follows.
62. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 101 105 114 130 155 ?
A
191
B
201
C
188
D
193
63. If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷, ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 253 − 2 ÷ 413 + 1313 × 13 = ?
A
834
B
818
C
828
D
838
64. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. B sits third to the left of D. A sits second to the left of G. D is the immediate neighbour of both C and A. E is not an immediate neighbour of B. How many people sit between E and F when counted from the right of E?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Four
D
One
65. In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’, A @ B means ‘A is the brother of B’, A − B means ‘A is the wife of B’, and A # B means ‘A is the father of B’. How is O related to V if ‘O @ P − T # G + V’?
A
Husband
B
Son
C
Mother's father
D
Mother's brother
66. In a certain code language, ‘van oak canoe’ is coded as ‘cs vd zb’ and ‘canoe jet wheat’ is coded as ‘vc cs uw’. How is ‘canoe’ coded in that language?
A
zb
B
cs
C
vd
D
vc
67. Seema ranked 14 th from the bottom and 42 th from the top in her class. How many students are there in her class?
A
54
B
53
C
55
D
52
68. Each of the digits in the number 3472618 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. The position of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the original number?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
69. Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, I, J, and K, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only two boxes are kept below I. Only one box is kept above J. Only one box is kept between J and K. B is kept immediately above C. D is kept at some place below A. How many boxes are kept between A and B?
A
Two
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
70. Which of the following numbers will replace the question marks (?) in the given series? 10, 2, 15, 3, 20, 5, 25, 7, ?, ?
A
30, 11
B
35, 11
C
30, 9
D
35, 9 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting
71. to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers only. (Left) 3 @ © 6 5 € € 3 3 8 € % 2 7 6 # 7 * £ € 9 $ (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a number?
A
Two
B
Zero
C
Three
D
One
72. M, N, O, P, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. Only one person sits between P and O when counted from the right of P. Only one person sits between O and X when counted from the right of O. Only one person sits between P and W when counted from the right of W. Only two people sit between N and X when counted from the left of X. Only one person sits between M and W when counted from the left of W. Who sits third to the right of Y?
A
M
B
O
C
P
D
W
73. Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) 8 7 * @ © 9 # % £ © * % © 2 * © 4 8 2 4 5 @ (Right) How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A
4
B
0
C
2
D
1
74. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (5, 31, 6) (3, 16, 5) 547
A
(3, 2, 7)
B
(6 , 13 , 2)
C
(1, 6, 4)
D
(4, 7, 2)
75. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 139 ÷ 7 + 341 × 11 − 41 = ?
A
921
B
831
C
856
D
983
76. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 18 27 39 54 ?
A
69
B
75
C
72
D
70
77. In 2025, which institution was directed by the National Green Tribunal to assess the ultraviolet sewage treatment technology?
A
IIT Delhi
B
IIT Kanpur
C
IIT Bombay
D
IIT Madras
78. In August 2025, the Indian Army, together with IIT Madras, set up a research centre on the IIT Madras campus called ______.
A
AstraLab
B
Agnishodh
C
BrahMos Research Cell
D
DefenceTech
79. What is the maximum number of lenders allowed per borrower under new Microfinance Institutions Network (MFIN) rules which came into effect from 1 April 2025?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
80. Which edition of the Offshore Security Coordination Committee (OSCC) was held in New Delhi in June 2025 (led by the Indian Coast guard) with a key focus to evaluate offshore infrastructure security and develop better multi-agency?
A
137th
B
147th
C
127th
D
157th
81. What does the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025, prohibit unless female heirs receive their inheritance first?
A
Court cases
B
Loan sanctioning
C
Dedication to Waqf
D
Property registration
82. What is the aim of the Digital Twin with AI-Driven Insights initiative showcased at India Mobile Congress 2025?
A
To design marketing tools for phone makers
B
To produce sensors for consumer devices
C
To plan and manage infrastructure
D
To create gaming systems for telecom users
83. Who won the 2025 World Junior Chess Championship?
A
Abhijeet Gupta
B
Viswanathan Anand
C
Pranav Venkatesh
D
Pentala Harikrishna
84. What was the theme of the World Food Forum (WFF) held in Rome from 14-18 October 2024?
A
Healthy food for all, for today and tomorrow
B
Nutritious food for all, for today and tomorrow
C
Good food for all, for today and forever
D
Good food for all, for today and tomorrow
85. Where was the first edition of the 2025 Kho Kho World Cup held in January 2025?
A
New Delhi, India
B
Dhaka, Bangladesh
C
Kathmandu, Nepal
D
Colombo, Sri Lanka
86. Which of the following administrative bodies has been designated the nodal agency for the 'Viksit Bharat @2047' programme in 2025?
A
Central Vigilance Commission
B
NITI Aayog
C
Ministry of External Affairs
D
Department of Science and Technology
87. How does the Mizzo Endo 4000, launched in 2025, improve clinical outcomes compared to conventional laparoscopic procedures?
A
It improves drug absorption in human tissues using nanotechnology-based delivery systems.
B
It allows large-scale production of low-cost prosthetics through additive manufacturing.
C
It enhances diagnostic accuracy by integrating AI into pathology workflows.
D
It reduces dependence on imported robotic surgical systems by enabling indigenous precision surgeries.
88. In June 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed a monetary penalty of ₹29.60 lakh (Rupees Twenty Nine Lakh Sixty Thousand only) on which of the following institutions for non-compliance with certain directions issued by RBI on ‘Licensing of Payments Banks’ on 6 June 2025?
A
Bandhan Bank Limited
B
HDFC Bank Limited
C
Punjab & Sind Bank
D
Fino Payments Bank Limited
89. Which city was chosen to host a major five-day Sumo wrestling tournament in 2025?
A
London, UK
B
Toronto, Canada
C
New York, USA
D
Sydney, Australia
90. Who among the following has been elected the President of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) for 2025–26?
A
Adani
B
Sanjiv Puri
C
Rajiv Memani
D
Mukesh Ambani The National Red List Roadmap, launched in October 2025, primarily aims at which of the
91. following?
A
To assess and monitor the conservation status of the country's flora and fauna
B
To track progress on renewable energy adoption and emissions reduction
C
To monitor air and water pollution levels across industrial zones
D
To develop renewable energy targets for environmental sustainability
92. Which state government has initiated transformative industrial reform campaign called Udyog Kranti in June 2025?
A
Maharashtra
B
Andhra Pradesh
C
Gujarat
D
Punjab
93. Which prestigious award did hockey player Harmanpreet Singh receive from President Droupadi Murmu at a specially organised function at Rashtrapati Bhavan in January 2025?
A
Arjuna Award
B
Dronacharya Award
C
Padma Bhushan
D
Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award
94. What is the name of the women’s wellness space inaugurated by the Department of Legal Affairs, Ministry of Law and Justice in July 2025?
A
Nari Kalyan Bhawan
B
Mahila Aarogyam Kaksh
C
Stree Suraksha Sadan
D
Swasthya Sthal
95. Which academy was the runner-up in the Bakshi Cup 2025?
A
Indian Military Academy (IMA)
B
Officers' Training Academy (OTA) Chennai
C
Air Force Academy (AFA)
D
National Defence Academy (NDA)
96. In November 2025, the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife approved several defence and paramilitary projects in which of the following protected areas?
A
Raimona National Park
B
Khangchendzonga National Park
C
Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary
D
Karakoram Wildlife Sanctuary "
0
Done
96
Left
96
Total
Submit Test
✅
Submit Test?
Once submitted you cannot change your answers.
0
Answered
0
Skipped
96
Total
Review
Submit Now
Home
TNPSC
Contest
RRB
Tests
Login
🔒
Login required
Please login to access the test series and start attempting tests.
🔐 Login & Continue
Maybe later