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Group D — Test 34
00:00
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01. Small changes in DNA copies during reproduction are important because they ________.
A
prevent fertilisation from happening
B
always cause harmful effects
C
stop reproduction in the next generation
D
provide variations which may help in survival
02. A government scheme promotes the rearing of fish in artificially controlled freshwater ponds. What is this type of fishing called?
A
Saltwater fishing
B
Capture fishing
C
Marine fishing
D
Culture fishing
03. What is the meaning of ‘Different parts of the human body perform different functions’?
A
Different cells perform same function
B
Presence of division of labour
C
All cells perform same function
D
Absence of division of labour
04. According to Joule’s law of heating, the heat produced (H) is directly proportional to which of the following?
A
The square of the current (I2)
B
The current (I)
C
The square of the resistance (R2)
D
The square of the time (t2)
05. A voltmeter is always connected in a circuit:
A
in diagonal
B
in place of a switch
C
in parallel
D
in series
06. When barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate, it gives aluminium chloride along with:
A
a yellow colour precipitate of barium sulphate
B
a white colour precipitate of barium sulphate
C
a white colour precipitate of barium chloride
D
a white colour precipitate of barium oxide
07. The formula for acceleration due to gravity (g) at the surface of the Earth is ____________.
A
g=GM/R2
B
g=R2/GM
C
g=G/MR2
D
g=GM/R
08. In the following reaction, what colour change is observed? Fe + CuSO 4 → FeSO 4 + Cu
A
Blue to green
B
Green to blue
C
Red to green
D
Blue to red
09. Which of the following organisms reproduces by binary fission?
A
Amoeba
B
Planaria
C
Hydra
D
Spirogyra
10. What is the role of the prostrate gland and seminal vesicles in the human male reproductive system?
A
To lower the temperature of the testes
B
To secrete testosterone
C
To produce sperm cells
D
To provide fluids for transporting sperm
11. Isobars are atoms having the same:
A
number of electrons only
B
atomic number and mass
C
mass number, different elements
D
number of neutrons only
12. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the shape and function of different cell types?
A
Muscle cells are flat and circular to help them flow in blood.
B
White blood cells can change shape to move through tissues.
C
Nerve cells are long and branched to carry messages across the body.
D
Red blood cells are biconcave to increase oxygen-carrying capacity.
13. A boy is running in a circular track of radius 10 m. He completes one circle in 1 minute. What is his average speed?
A
5.2 m/s
B
1.04 m/s
C
0 m/s
D
10.4 m/s
14. Why are ultrasounds preferred for cleaning objects with complex shapes?
A
They have very high speed in liquids
B
Their high frequency dislodges dirt particles
C
They increase temperature of solution
D
They produce magnetic effect
15. The ability of gases to be compressed easily is due to:
A
lack of particles
B
high mass of particles
C
strong forces between particles
D
large spaces between particles
16. Which of the following methods is NOT used for the ore enrichment?
A
Dredging
B
Leaching
C
Froth floatation
D
Hydraulic washing
17. How many atoms are there in a molecule of water?
A
4
B
1
C
3
D
2
18. What type of reaction is CaO + H ₂ O → Ca(OH) ₂ ?
A
Combination
B
Decomposition
C
Neutralisation
D
Displacement
19. Why do we need to conserve coal and petroleum?
A
They are non-renewable sources of energy.
B
They are renewable sources of energy.
C
They are unlimited resources.
D
They are formed every day in factories.
20. Which of the following best describes the key feature of the velocity–time graph for an object moving with uniform velocity?
A
It is a straight line parallel to the time axis.
B
It is a straight line inclined to the time axis.
C
It is a straight line parallel to the velocity axis.
D
It is a curved line.
21. What is the electronic configuration of oxygen (Atomic number = 8)?
A
2, 8
B
4, 4
C
2, 6
D
2, 4, 6
22. The absolute refractive index of a medium is defined as the ratio of ___________.
A
speed of light in medium to speed of light in vacuum
B
speed of light in glass to speed of light in water
C
speed of light in water to speed of light in medium
D
speed of light in vacuum to speed of light in medium
23. When light enters a glass prism from air at the first refracting surface, the light ray _________.
A
Bends towards the normal, as it enters a denser medium
B
Undergoes total internal reflection.
C
Passes straight through without bending
D
Bends away from the normal, increasing the angle of incidence
24. Which of the following cell organelles is filled with digestive enzymes and helps to keep the cell clean by digesting any foreign material as well as worn out cell organelles?
A
Lysosomes
B
Ribosome
C
Chloroplast
D
Chromoplast
25. If a man of mass 75 kg climbs an 8 m staircase in 25 s, taking g = 10 m/s², his average power is _______.
A
240 W
B
120 W
C
24 W
D
150 W
26. The total surface area of a right circular cylinder with radius of the base 12 cm and height 72 cm is: (take π = 22/7)
A
528 cm2
B
6336 cm2
C
905 cm2
D
5430 cm2
27. Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7% per annum, respectively. Ashish borrowed an amount of ₹4,40,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹) between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Ashish after 4 years.
A
61,100
B
62,600
C
63,100
D
61,600
28. A camp has provisions for 55 persons for 14 days. In how many days will the same provisions finish off, if the strength of the camp is increased to 70 persons?
A
11
B
10
C
14
D
9
29. If a X m long train running at a speed of 41 m/sec crosses a railway platform in 34 sec. Find the value of X, if the length of the railway platform is 301 m.
A
1088
B
1089
C
1093
D
1090
30. If mean is 35 and median is 33.5, then the value of mode is: 6534
A
31.5
B
31
C
32
D
30.5
31. 5479
A
360
B
340
C
354
D
348
32. The sides of a triangle are 20 cm, 51 cm, and 37 cm. What is the length of its altitude corresponding to the side with a length of 51 cm?
A
30 cm
B
53 cm
C
12 cm
D
49 cm
33. The fourth proportional to 12, a, and 6a is 50. What is the positive value of 'a'?
A
8
B
12
C
13
D
10
34. The income of Raman is ₹70,000. He saves 26% of his income. If his income increases by 32% and expenditure increases by 45%, then his savings will:
A
increase by ₹909
B
decrease by ₹908
C
decrease by ₹910
D
increase by ₹913
35. A dealer purchased a microwave for ₹57,000. He allows a discount of 64% on its marked price and still gains 38%. Find the marked price of the microwave.
A
₹2,18,310
B
₹2,18,514
C
₹2,18,398
D
₹2,18,500
36. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 2, 6 and 3 days, respectively. How long (in days) will they take to do thrice the same work, working together?
A
4
B
6
C
9
D
3
37. ₹3,246 is divided among A, B, C and D in such a way that the shares of A and B, B and C, and C and D are in the ratios of 4 : 5, 4 : 5, and 6 : 7, respectively. The share of A (in ₹) is:
A
612
B
576
C
508
D
532
38. The average age of a father and his daughter is 27 years. The ratio of their ages 4 years hence from now, will be 23 : 8. Find the daughter's present age (in years).
A
16
B
20
C
12
D
15
39. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 51. What are the numbers?
A
24, 25
B
26, 27
C
27, 28
D
25, 26
40. Two cars start from the same point and travel in opposite directions. If one car travels at 60 km/hr and the other at 75 km/hr, how far apart will they be after 3 hours?
A
405 km
B
445 km
C
395 km
D
425 km
41. An article is sold at a 15% profit. If it had been sold for ₹90 more, the profit would have been 25%. What is the cost price of the article?
A
₹850
B
₹800
C
₹900
D
₹950
42. In a right-angle triangle ABC, right angled at B, AB = 8 cm. A line AO is drawn which meets BC at O such that AO = OC = 10 cm. Find the area of triangle ABC.
A
50 cm2
B
36 cm2
C
40 cm2
D
64 cm2
43. The cost price of a box of pen is ₹5,400. The shopkeeper gives a 62% discount on the cost price. What will be the selling price (in ₹)?
A
2,095
B
1,986
C
2,138
D
2,052
44. Pipe A can fill a tank in 32 minutes and pipe B can empty it in 48 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together, after how many minutes should pipe B be closed, so that the tank is filled in 60 minutes?
A
36
B
42
C
40
D
48
45. The arithmetic mean of the observations 90, 94, 44, 97, 46, 72, 62, 44 and 54 is:
A
57
B
71
C
67
D
72
46. In a certain code language, ‘moving through life’ is coded as ‘gt df za’ and ‘life is short’ is coded as ‘kl td za’. How is ‘life’ coded in the given language? (All codes are two-letter codes)
A
gt
B
kl
C
za
D
df
47. In a certain code language, A ? B means ‘A is the daughter of B’, A = B means ‘A is the son of B’, A @ B means ‘A is the father of B’, and A √ B means ‘A is the sister of B’. How is C related to L if 'C ? D @ E √ F = L'?
A
Sister
B
Daughter
C
Mother
D
Wife
48. Six people, D, E, F, G, H and I, are sitting in a row facing north. Only two people sit to the left of I. D sits third to the right of I. H is an immediate neighbour of both F and D. E sits to the immediate right of G. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one DOES NOT belong to that group?
A
IF
B
ED
C
FH
D
EI
49. Monit starts from point A and drives 43 km towards north. He then takes a left turn, drives 54 km, turns left and drives 58 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 67 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 15 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again? (Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
10 km to the east
B
12 km to the west
C
11 km to the east
D
13 km to the west
50. Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given below. Both triads follow the same pattern. UN-RK-OQ SL-PI-MO
A
RJ-NH-KL
B
QJ-NG-KM
C
QJ-NG-KL
D
RJ-NG-KL
51. FK 14 is related to CG 16 in a certain way. In the same way, QV 22 is related to NR 24. To which of the given options is OT 27 related, following the same logic?
A
LS 28
B
LP 29
C
JS 29
D
JQ 28
52. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. WASP - WPSA - PSAW GUTS - GSTU - STUG
A
POND - PNOD - DNOP
B
NICE - NECI - ECIN
C
HUGE - UHGE - EUGH
D
GROW - GRWO - ROWG
53. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) % 4 6 1 * @ 8 $ 7 & Ω 9 # 2 + 3 £ 5 (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by another number?
A
5
B
3
C
4
D
6
54. Each of the digits in the number 7214365 is arranged in the ascending order from left to right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the original number?
A
One
B
None
C
Three
D
Two
55. In a certain code language, ‘may i sit’ is coded as ‘pt sq ac’ and ‘please sit here’ is coded as ‘pt hm rf’. How is ‘sit’ coded in that language?
A
sq
B
hm
C
rf
D
pt
56. Seven boxes, B, D, E, P, S, T and W, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only two boxes are kept below B. Only one box is kept above W. Only one box is kept between W and E. T is kept immediately above S. P is kept at some place below D. How many boxes are kept between D and T?
A
One
B
Four
C
Two
D
Three
57. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only two people sit between D and A when counted from the left of A. C sits third to the left of G. E sits to the immediate right of G. E sits second to the left of D. F is an immediate neighbour of C. How many people sit between B and G when counted from the left of G?
A
Four
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
58. In a row of 39 people facing north, Vandana is 16 th from the left end. If Nayana sits 7 th to the right of Vandana, then what is Nayana’s position from the right end of the row?
A
15th
B
17th
C
13th
D
16th
59. Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only six people sit to the right of C. Only four people sit to the left of B. D sits to the left of A but right of B. F sits second to the right of G. How many people sit to the right of E?
A
Two
B
Four
C
One
D
Three
60. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
HE – OT
B
VS – CH
C
SP – ZE
D
PN – WB
61. Refer to the given number series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Counting to be done from left to right only.) (Left) 1 8 9 1 3 8 3 8 9 9 5 9 6 5 5 1 7 7 4 2 3 1 6 (Right) How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
Two
B
Three
C
None
D
One
62. Tinu starts from point A and drives 55 km towards east. He then takes a right turn, drives 57 km, turns right and drives 61 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 66 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 6 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again? (Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
9 km to the south
B
8 km to the south
C
7 km to the south
D
10 km to the north
63. If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 112 × 4 ÷ 8 − 2 + 23 = ?
A
21
B
26
C
18
D
13
64. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some camels are boats. Some boats are stars. Conclusion (I): Some camels are stars. Conclusion (II): Some boats are camels.
A
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
B
Only conclusion (I) follows.
C
Only conclusion (II) follows.
D
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
65. Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement(s). Statements: All cups are glasses. All glasses are tiles. Conclusions: (I) Some tiles are glasses. (II) All cups are tiles 159.0
A
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
B
Only conclusion (II) follows.
C
Only conclusion (I) follows.
D
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow,
66. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
SVR
B
RUQ
C
YBX
D
VZU
67. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? SWE ZDL GKS NRZ ?
A
UYG
B
UGY
C
UIG
D
UGI
68. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 31 51 71 91 111 ?
A
130
B
131
C
132
D
129
69. Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the following series to make it logically complete? ICG23 JDH31 KEI39 LFJ47 ?
A
MGL56
B
MGK56
C
MGK55
D
MGL55
70. If + means ÷, − means ×, × means −, and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 608 + 76 × 6 − 37 ÷ 259 = ?
A
39
B
41
C
33
D
45
71. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 612 610 606 600 592 ? 3902
A
581
B
582
C
591
D
584
72. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 9 3 8 9 8 9 3 4 4 4 5 1 2 3 6 8 3 2 9 6 2 9 1 4 9 2 1 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
Five
B
Eight
C
Seven
D
Nine
73. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 617 627 635 641 645 ?
A
641
B
643
C
647
D
644
74. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (18, 162, 9) (21, 189, 9)
A
(12, 120, 9)
B
(9, 90, 9)
C
(15, 135, 9)
D
(16, 144, 8)
75. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 8 5 1 7 3 5 2 8 7 6 9 8 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
Two
B
Four
C
One
D
Three
76. What responsibility did the Supreme Court give to the National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI) in April 2025?
A
To relocate glass factories near the Taj Mahal
B
To repair the Taj Mahal
C
To promote tourism near the Taj Mahal
D
To study the impact of glass industries on the Taj Mahal
77. Monika Gusain won a senior executive post in which of the following Indian associations?
A
Indian Institute of Architects
B
Asian Rural Development Organization
C
Supreme Court Bar Association
D
National Association of Realtors - India
78. Which of the following hockey players received the Arjuna Award in January 2025?
A
Gurjit Kaur
B
Salima Tete
C
Deep Grace Ekka
D
Savita Punia
79. With which country did India conduct the joint Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) exercise in May 2025?
A
Japan
B
Sri Lanka
C
The Philippines
D
The Maldives
80. Where was the 2025 Open Championship (golf) played from July 17–20?
A
Royal Liverpool, England
B
Royal Portrush, Northern Ireland
C
St Andrews, Scotland
D
Royal Troon, Scotland
81. Which of the following tennis tournaments used live electronic line calling instead of human judges in 2025?
A
US Open
B
Wimbledon
C
French Open
D
Australian Open
82. What was the theme for Ayurveda Day, 2025, as announced by the Ministry of Ayush?
A
Traditional Remedies in Modern Times
B
Ayurveda for People & Planet
C
Ayurveda, Environment & You
D
Ayurveda for Wellness
83. Which earthquake rescue operation was launched by the National Disaster Response Force
A
Operation Bramha
B
Operation Vishnu
C
Operation Naag
D
Operation Sudarshan
84. On which date was the birth anniversary of social reformer Jyotiba Phule observed in the year 2025?
A
5th September
B
11th April
C
14th April
D
15th August
85. Who won Breakthrough of the Year at the 2025 Laureus Awards?
A
Victor Wembanyama
B
Summer McIntosh
C
Coco Gauff
D
Lamine Yamal
86. As of June 2025, in which of the following years has India aimed to achieve net-zero emissions?
A
2070
B
2030
C
2047
D
2057
87. Under the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana, how many Jan Aushadhi Kendras (JAKs) have been opened till 28 February 2025 across India, having an end-to- end IT-enabled supply chain system?
A
14,057
B
15,057
C
16,507
D
13,007
88. Which para-athlete was honoured with the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award by President Droupadi Murmu at Rashtrapati Bhavan in January 2025?
A
Subhash Rana
B
Praveen Kumar
C
Ajeet Singh
D
Preeti Pal
89. What was the score of India in the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) for 2024 released by Transparency International in February 2025?
A
38
B
31
C
40
D
24
90. India will ban AsiaSat's AS-5 and AS-7 satellites after 31 March 2026. This decision comes from the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre due to concerns over ______.
A
Singaporean authority
B
Japanese authority
C
Chinese authority
D
South Korean authority
91. According to the Global Peace Index 2025, which of the following countries at the bottom, indicating the least peaceful nation?
A
Sudan
B
Yemen
C
Russia
D
Syria
92. In the Union Budget 2025-26, the Government of India announced which of the following missions for ensuring energy reliability and reducing dependency on fossil fuels?
A
Hydro Power Mission
B
Nuclear Energy Mission
C
EV Mission
D
Hydrogen Mission
93. Bima Vistaar, an insurance product covering life, health and property for rural people, is likely to be launched by ________.
A
November 2025
B
December 2025
C
January 2026
D
March 2026
94. What was the official theme for the National Technology Day, 2025?
A
TANTRA – Tapasya for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration
B
YANTRA – Yugantar for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration
C
PANTRA – Prapancha for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration
D
MANTRA – Manovikas for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration
95. As of 4 July 2025, India’s foreign exchange reserves stood at ________.
A
₹56,58,048 crores
B
₹67,68,048 crores
C
₹59,68,048 crores
D
₹54,68,048 crores "
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