Group D — Test 33

01. Which of the following human activities contributes to ozone layer depletion?

02. Which of the following reactions demonstrates the acidic nature of ethanoic acid?

03. A particle has zero kinetic energy. What can be concluded about the particle's motion?

04. Which of the following is a molecule of a compound?

05. Which statement best describes a homologous series of organic compounds?

06. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the sign convention for spherical lenses?

07. According to Newton’s second law of motion, what happens when an unbalanced force is applied to an object?

08. A farmer lives near a river, but the canal system in his area receives an irregular water supply from the reservoir. What should he ideally adopt for irrigation?

09. What happens if one drop of acid rain water is put on blue litmus paper?

10. What is the type of reproduction beginning from the fusion of male and female gametes called?

11. The distributions of electrons in the K, L, and M shell of the chlorine atom are:

12. A student connects a voltmeter across the terminals of a glowing bulb. What does the voltmeter measure?

13. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the nucleus?

14. The expression for acceleration due to gravity on the surface of a planet of mass M and radius R is:

15. Where is the centre of curvature of a convex mirror located?

16. The speed of sound (v) is calculated by multiplying which two wave properties?

17. What are the main components of a neuron?

18. The formula unit mass of a substance is the sum of the atomic masses of all atoms in a formula unit of a/an:

19. Which of the following products is formed when carbon dioxide reacts with calcium hydroxide (lime water)?

20. From the given alternatives, which method of asexual reproduction involves the formation of a new plant from the broken portion of the parent plant?

21. What type of epithelial tissue is the outer skin made of?

22. In human female, when egg is not fertilised, which of the following process takes place?

23. Two wires, A and B, of the same material, have the same length, but the cross-sectional area of wire A is twice that of wire B. The ratio of their resistances R A : R B is:

24. Select the correct statement from the following.

25. A particle’s velocity-time graph is a straight line with a negative slope. What does this indicate about the particle’s motion?

26. If the expenditure of Company A in 2023 was ₹660 crore and the profit percentage was 35%, then what was its income in 2023? 7052

27. 3209  

28. A trader buys an article and sells it at a profit of 25%. The buyer again sells it at a loss of 10%. If the final selling price is ₹9,900, then what was the cost price (in ₹) of the article for the first trader?

29. The monthly incomes of two friends, David and Ajay, are in the ratio 5 : 8, and each of them saves ₹72,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly expenditure is 1 : 4, find the monthly income of David (in ₹).

30. In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at the point T (inside the quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 42.5°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 8 : 9, then what is the difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?

31. 3 cups and 4 glasses cost ₹270. If 2 more glasses are purchased, then the total amount becomes ₹330. Find the cost of a cup.

32. The cost price of a box of notebooks is ₹7,400. The shopkeeper gave 28% discount on the cost price. What will be the selling price (in ₹)?

33. Two trains, 170 metres and 220 metres in length, are running in opposite directions. The first runs at the rate of 45 km/hr and the second at the rate of 63 km/hr. How long will they take to cross each other?

34. The average age of 43 students of a class is 13 years. If the age of the teacher is also included, the average age of the whole group becomes 14 years. The age (in years) of the teacher is:

35. Simplify: 72 − [49 − (81 ÷ 9 − (14 − 24 ÷ 4) ÷ 8)] 2857

36. The curved surface area and the volume of a cylindrical pipe is 565.2 m 2 and 1,695.6 m 3 , respectively. Find the total surface area of the pipe. (Use π = 3.14)

37. Simplify the following.

38. When x is added to each of 10, 14, 38 and 28, then the numbers so obtained, in this order, are in proportion. Then, if 3x : y :: y : (5x − 6), and y > 0, what is the value of y?

39. The income of Raman is ₹43,800. He saves 20% of his income. If his income increases by 36% and expenditure increases by 40%, then his savings will:

40. Given that C is the third proportional of 59 and B. If B is the sum of the first three even natural numbers, then find the value of C. (Round off the answer to two decimal places.)

41. A class of 75 students took a Physics test. 22 students had an average score of 85. The other students had an average score of 95. What is the average score (rounded off to one decimal place) of the whole class?

42. R's age is twice the age of S and three times the age of T. S is 5 years older than T. What is the difference in ages (in years) between R and T?

43. X people were given a contract for doing a piece of work in 36 days. 3 people did not turn up to work due to sickness, and the rest of the people completed the work in 39 days. What is the value of X?

44. If the radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 15% and its height is increased by 149%, then what is the percentage increase (rounded to the nearest integer) in its volume?

45. Which of the following is NOT a prime number?

46. From the top of a building 15 m high, the angle of depression to a point on the ground is 45 degrees. Find the horizontal distance from the building to the point.

47. One pipe can fill a tank in 11 minutes, while another pipe can empty the completely filled tank in 22 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how many minutes will it take to fill one-half of the tank?

48. The amount on a sum of ₹4,400 at the rate of 20% per annum compound interest, compounded annually, in 2 years will be:

49. Maya buys a mobile phone for her child. The phone is marked at ₹21,000 and is offered with two successive discounts of 5% and Z%, respectively. After receiving both discounts, she pays ₹11,172. Find the value of Z.

50. The number of prime numbers lying between 309 and 320 is:

51. If 1 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number 258671543, then what will be the value of middle digit in the new number thus formed?

52. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 515 758 761 726 579 (Right) (Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) (NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.) What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the second digit of the lowest number? 2426

53. In the following triad, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. DIVE - DEVI - EVID BEAR - BRAE - RAEB

54. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? BMV, EOT, HQR, KSP, ?

55. Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 6 6 4 5 2 2 4 5 1 4 7 7 4 5 9 6 9 2 4 3 8 1 2 8 3 7 1 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number? 15228

56. In a certain code language, P + Q means ‘P is the father of Q’, P # Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’, P & Q means ‘P is the wife of Q’, and P % Q means ‘P is the sister of Q’. How is V related to D if ‘V % L & C + B % D’?

57. In a certain code language, ‘royal snow blue’ is coded as 'tl zw cr' and ‘blue two web’ is coded as ‘rg iq zw’. How is ‘blue’ coded in the given language?

58. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some samosas are burgers. Some burgers are pizzas. Conclusions: (I): Some samosas are pizzas. (II): All pizzas are burgers.

59. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. RAMP - PRMA - RPAM SEND - DSNE - SDEN

60. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. E sits second to the left of B. C sits second to the right of F. D is on the immediate left of C. Who is sitting on the immediate right of A?

61. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some erasers are pens. Some pens are bags. Conclusions: (I) Some erasers are bags. (II) All bags are pens.

62. Satish starts from Point A and drives 47 km towards south. He then takes a right turn, drives 65 km, turns right and drives 65 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 77 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 18 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)

63. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 12 28 45 63 ? 102 3815

64. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? ZSL 18, VOH 29, RKD 40, NGZ 51, JCV 62, ?

65. Seven people B, C, D, I, J, K, and L are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. Only three people sit between D and L, when counted from the right of L. Only three people sit between K and I, when counted from the left of K. B sits to the immediate right of D. J is an immediate neighbour of L as well as I. Who sits second to the left of C?

66. Seven boxes, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the same order. Only two boxes are kept between M and O. Only N is kept above S. No box is kept below O. R is kept at some place below P but at some place above Q. Which box is kept third above Q?

67. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (12, 20, 45) (18, 26, 57)

68. CEID is related to JLPK in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, EGKF is related to LNRM. To which of the given options is GIMH related, following the same logic? 9479

69. Which of the following number will replace the question mark (?) in the given series? 1, 2, 6, 15, 31, 56, ?

70. If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number 54286379, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?

71. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

72. In a certain code language, ‘dirt is there’ is coded as ‘mp rc gp’ and ‘clean the dirt’ is coded as ‘hk mp bo’. How is ‘dirt’ coded in the given language?

73. Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. A sits to the immediate left of B. C sits third to the left of B. D is an immediate neighbour of B. F sits to the immediate right of C. D sits to the immediate left of E. Who sits at the extreme right end of the line?

74. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. All numbers are single digit numbers only. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 2 6 9 1 2 5 7 2 5 2 2 4 7 9 3 2 5 4 1 4 9 9 1 8 9 (Right) How many such even digits is/are there each of which is immediately preceded by an even digit and also immediately followed by an even digit? 3345

75. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 1 2 8 4 6 9 5 8 8 7 9 2 6 6 5 8 6 3 1 1 4 4 6 (Right) How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even number and also immediately followed by an even number?

76. If + means - , - means x , x means ÷ , ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 21 - 4 ÷ 371 + 111 x 3 = ?

77. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)

78. Rakesh ranked 13 th from the top and 18 th from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in the class?

79. Mr. Akai starts from Point A and drives 15 km towards the north. He then takes a right turn, drives 18 km, turns right and drives 23 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 26 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 8 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)

80. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 18, 22, 30, 42, 58, ?

81. How many gold medals did Suruchi Singh win in 10 m air pistol at ISSF World Cup in 2025?

82. Which Indian state has announced plans to build a ‘Great Green Wall’ by 2030 to protect its coastline from cyclones and environmental degradation?

83. In December 2024, which foundation day was celebrated by the Border Security Force (BSF) of India?

84. Which of the following countries launched the world’s first AI-based satellite In May 2025?

85. Which team won the National Team of the Year award at the Sportstar Aces Awards 2025?

86. In 2025, which government’s commitment was emphasised by the inauguration of the Khelo India multipurpose hall in Arunachal Pradesh?

87. In 2025, which authority raised serious objections to the Aparajita Bill 2024, calling its proposed punishments under BNS excessively harsh and disproportionate?

88. The 2025 French Open, also known as Roland Garros, was played on which type of court surface?

89. Which organisation initiated a 12-day cybersecurity exercise called ‘Cyber Suraksha’, starting 16 June 2025?

90. The share of ULIPs in the total APE of which insurance company fell to 46.8% in Q1 FY26, compared to 51.4% in the same quarter last year?

91. Who received the Lifetime Achievement Award at the Bengaluru International Film Festival, 2025?

92. Which of the following initiative was launched on 21 March 2025, by the Ministry of Science and Technology to offer structured biotech mentorship?

93. What was the theme of the International Day of Democracy, 2025, celebrated in September 2025?

94. Which of the following was the impact of the Election Commission of India Network (ECINET) on the publication of Index Cards during elections?

95. India submitted its 4 th Biennial Update Report to the UNFCCC in December 2024. What is the full form of UNFCCC?

96. Where was the VLSRSAM flight-test conducted by DRDO?

97. What is the prize money for Bal Sahitya Puraskar winners?

98. The Mussalman Wakf (Repeal) Bill, 2025, seeks to remove the outdated Mussalman Wakf Act of ______.

99. What percentage did CPI inflation touch in April 2025 in India, marking a near six-year low?

100. Which of the following institutes conducted a PM2.5 air quality assessment in Indian cities in October 2025 and found that all ten of the most polluted cities were located within the National Capital Region (NCR)?