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Group D — Test 32
00:00
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01. Which of the following parts of a plant has the dividing tissue region which helps in growth?
A
Sclerenchyma
B
Apical meristem
C
Sieve tube
D
Vessels
02. If the kinetic energy of a moving body is 450 J and its velocity is 15 m/s, the mass of the body is ______.
A
2 kg
B
4 kg
C
5 kg
D
3 kg
03. Every section of a current-carrying circular wire contributes to the magnetic field at the centre of the loop in ________.
A
a random direction
B
the perpendicular direction
C
the same direction
D
the opposite direction
04. Which of the following human female body part prepares itself every month to receive a fertilised egg?
A
Uterus
B
Pharynx
C
Pancreas
D
Kidney
05. What physical quantity is obtained by multiplying the velocity of an object by the time it travels, assuming the object moves with a uniform velocity?
A
Displacement
B
Momentum
C
Force
D
Acceleration
06. Which primary feature allows mitochondria to be called the 'powerhouse of the cell'?
A
They store calcium ions
B
They contain digestive enzymes
C
They control protein synthesis
D
They synthesise energy as ATP
07. Which of the following is a correct use of baking soda (sodium hydrogen carbonate) in daily life?
A
It is used in fire extinguishers to produce foam
B
It is used to prepare edible salts
C
It is used to make soaps non-greasy
D
It is used to neutralise strong acids in lead-acid batteries
08. When ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence of conc H2SO4 it produces ______.
A
esters
B
ketone
C
aldehyde
D
alcohol
09. A molecule of ozone has:
A
1 oxygen atom
B
4 oxygen atoms
C
3 oxygen atoms
D
2 oxygen atoms
10. What happens when insects suck the sap from leaves of crop plants?
A
Plant produces more flowers
B
Plant grows stronger
C
Plant gets pollinated
D
Plant health is affected
11. What is the valency of oxygen in H ₂ O?
A
2
B
3
C
1
D
0
12. Three rays of light parallel and close to the principal axis are incident on a convex lens, these rays will converge at which point after passing through the lens?
A
At any point beyond the focus
B
At the optical centre
C
At the focus of the lens
D
At any point between the optical centre and the focus
13. What is the name of the semiconservative process in which DNA duplicates into two identical molecules?
A
Mutation
B
Transcription
C
Translation
D
Replication
14. Which of the following statements about baking soda (sodium hydrogen carbonate) is NOT correct?
A
Only A
B
Both A and B
C
Only C
D
Both A and C
15. Which of the following is an organic compound?
A
NaCl
B
C2H6
C
CaCO3
D
Na2CO3
16. Which of the following is NOT due to refraction of light?
A
Image formation by a convex mirror
B
Image formation by a convex lens
C
Twinkling of stars
D
Delayed Sunset
17. Which of the following is chosen as a standard reference for determining atomic masses?
A
Carbon-13
B
Nitrogen-14
C
Carbon-12
D
Nitrogen-15
18. The diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane is known as _____.
A
osmosis
B
diffusion
C
transpiration
D
active transport
19. Which of the following statements is correct?
A
Magnetic field lines are always straight lines.
B
Magnetic field lines start from the south pole and end at the north pole outside the magnet.
C
Magnetic field is zero at the surface of a current-carrying wire.
D
The direction of magnetic field around a straight current-carrying conductor can be given by the right-hand thumb rule.
20. In industries, how are ultrasonic waves primarily used to ensure the structural integrity of metallic components such as machine parts and bridges?
A
To heat the metal to remove impurities
B
To change the density of the metal
C
To detect cracks and flaws inside the block
D
To polish the surface of the metal
21. Which of the following has a variable composition?
A
Brass
B
Hydrogen chloride
C
Methane
D
Water
22. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A
The value of G is constant everywhere
B
Gravitational force is strongest among small bodies
C
Gravitational force is always attractive
D
Every object attracts every other object in the universe
23. In fish production, which of the following comes under the category of shellfish?
A
Tuna
B
Silver carp
C
Bombay duck
D
Molluscs
24. A car travels at 62 km/hr for 2.5 hours and then at 48 km/hr for 1.5 hours. Its average speed is approximately _______.
A
55 km/hr
B
58 km/hr
C
56.8 km/hr
D
27.5 km/hr
25. By how many degrees Celsius is the temperature of the scrotum lower than the normal body temperature?
A
About 6°C
B
About 12°C
C
About 7°C
D
About 3°C
26. In an election between two candidates, 80% of the registered voters cast their votes. Out of these, 2% were declared invalid. One candidate secured 8,820 votes, which accounted for 75% of the valid votes. Find the total number of registered voters.
A
16,200
B
15,000
C
15,200
D
15,800
27. A cuboid with dimensions 24 cm × 16 cm × 10 cm is melted to form smaller cubes with sides of 4 cm. Determine the number of cubes that can be formed.
A
58
B
64
C
60
D
62
28. The difference between the current ages of two brothers is 4 years. Twenty years ago, the age of the elder brother was 1.25 times the age of the younger brother. What is the current age (in years) of the elder brother?
A
34
B
36
C
40
D
38
29. The income of Raman is ₹68,800. He saves 18.5% of his income. If his income increases by 17% and expenditure increases by 25%, then his savings will:
A
increase by ₹2,319
B
decrease by ₹2,322
C
increase by ₹2,325
D
decrease by ₹2,325
30. Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7.5% per annum, respectively. Atul borrowed an amount of ₹2,20,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹) between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Atul after 3 years.
A
27,900
B
25,900
C
27,400
D
26,400
31. The fourth proportional to 18, a and 8a is 16. What is the positive value of a?
A
6
B
8
C
3
D
9
32. A typist takes 40 minutes to type 2 pages. How long (in minutes) will he take to type 101 pages?
A
2025
B
2010
C
2020
D
2030
33. The sides of a triangle are 39 cm, 62 cm, and 85 cm. What is the length of its altitude corresponding to the side with a length of 62 cm?
A
57 cm
B
12 cm
C
36 cm
D
18 cm
34. 11 men and 17 women can complete a piece of work in 6 days, and 18 men and 15 women can complete the same work in 4 days. The work of how many women is equivalent to that of one man?
A
6
B
7
C
4
D
10
35. A cricketer has an average of 57 runs over 10 innings. If he scores 195 runs in the 11 th inning, by how many runs (rounded off to the nearest whole number) does his average score increase?
A
16
B
8
C
13
D
14
36. A dealer allowed a 32% discount on an article and was still able to manage a 57% profit. Find the ratio of the cost price to listed price.
A
65 : 161
B
71 : 162
C
69 : 160
D
68 : 157
37. A and B working together can do a piece of work in 6 days. B alone can do the same work in 7 days. How long (in days) will A alone take to do double the work?
A
42
B
84
C
85
D
87
38. The total number of colour blocks is 6409. If the ratio of red blocks to blue blocks is 7 : 5 and the ratio of blue blocks to yellow blocks is 8 : 4, then how many yellow blocks are there?
A
1099
B
1102
C
1098
D
1105
39. A piece of land in the form of a rectangle has dimensions 240 m × 180 m. A narrow strip 10 m wide is dug all around it (outside) and the earth dug out is evenly spread over the land, increasing its surface level by 25 cm. Find the depth of the strip, rounded off to two decimal places.
A
1.23 m
B
1.11 m
C
1.43 m
D
1.34 m
40. A pair of earrings is bought for ₹27,650 and is sold at a profit of 5%. Find the profit (in ₹). (Round off your answer to the nearest rupee)
A
₹1,362
B
₹1,462
C
₹1,450
D
₹1,383
41. A typist takes 40 minutes to type 4 pages. How long (in minutes) will he take to type 112 pages?
A
1125
B
1110
C
1130
D
1120
42.
A
22.73%
B
45.45%
C
32.73%
D
37.73%
43. The arithmetic mean of the observations 96, 70, 85, 52, 40, 88, 63, 40 and 60 is:
A
56
B
66
C
74
D
65
44. Ravi sells only pens and pencils. A pen costs ₹12 and a pencil costs ₹4. A student buys a total of 25 items and spends ₹180. How many pens did the student buy?
A
10
B
15
C
5
D
20
45. A person stands 36 metres away from the foot of a tower. The angle of elevation to the top of the tower is θ , and tan θ = 5/3. What is the height (in metres) of the tower?
A
54
B
48
C
45
D
60
46. A salesman marks his goods 75% above the cost price and gives a discount of 52% on them. Find the percentage of this gain or loss.
A
18% gain
B
16% loss
C
15% loss
D
19% loss
47. If a 1768 m long train crosses a pole in 68 seconds, then find the time (in seconds) taken by the train to cross a 338 m long platform.
A
82
B
76
C
81
D
77
48. Two trains, having lengths 210 m and 390 m, are running at speeds of 120 km/hr and 150 km/hr, respectively, in the same direction. The time taken (in minutes) by the faster train, coming from behind, to completely cross the other train is: 3387
A
9.3
B
11.1
C
2
D
1.2
49. In a certain code language, ‘keep turning pages’ is coded as ‘kd vt fg’ and ‘count the pages’ is coded as ‘kl vt za’. How is ‘pages’ coded in the given language? (All codes are two-letter codes)
A
kd
B
kl
C
fg
D
vt
50. Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only E is kept above B. Only two boxes are kept between B and A. Only C is kept below G. F is not kept immediately above A. How many boxes are kept below A?
A
4
B
3
C
1
D
2
51. In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operation(s) to the first number. Select the number-pair in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following pairs. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) 74, 43 98, 55
A
122, 66
B
64, 39
C
142, 76
D
46, 29
52. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 532 542 550 556 560 ? 4223
A
562
B
568
C
566
D
564
53. HR 15 is related to KU 12 in a certain way. In the same way, SK 18 is related to VN 15. To which of the given options is EW 21 related, following the same logic?
A
HA 18
B
HZ 18
C
HZ 15
D
IA 18
54. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
KOJ
B
OSM
C
JNI
D
MQL
55. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 7 8 9 4 6 7 3 9 6 1 9 8 3 4 (Right) How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
A
One
B
Two
C
Four
D
Three
56. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) 1 © % £ 8 8 @ % 4 # 1 © 3 7 6 3 % * & € 9 7 (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A
4
B
1
C
3
D
5
57. Daksha starts from Point A and drives 5 km towards east. She then takes a right turn, drives 6 km, turns left and drives 11 km. She then takes a left turn and drives 6 km. She takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should she drive in order to reach Point A again? (Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
11 km towards south
B
13 km towards west
C
11 km towards east
D
15 km towards north
58. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 36 B 8 C 528 A 22 D 55 = ?
A
257
B
261
C
244
D
239
59. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All golds are hives. No hive is a cow. Conclusions: (I): No gold is a cow. (II): Some cows are hives.
A
Only conclusion (I) follows
B
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
C
Only conclusion (II) follows
D
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
60. A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. C sits to the immediate left of B. W sits to the immediate left of A. A sits second to the left of X. D sits third to the left of B. Who sits third to the right of Y?
A
D
B
W
C
A
D
C
61. In a certain code language, ‘lab bird set’ is coded as 'ef xo ej' and ‘set web hall’ is coded as ‘ot ef hs’. How is ‘set’ coded in that language?
A
ot
B
ej
C
xo
D
ef
62. M, N, O, P, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. Only one person sits between P and O when counted from the right of P. Only one person sits between O and X when counted from the right of O. Only one person sits between P and W when counted from the right of W. Only two people sit between N and X when counted from the right of N. Only one person sits between M and W when counted from the right of M. Who sits third to the right of Y?
A
M
B
O
C
W
D
P
63. Mr. Zzz starts from Point A and drives 11 km towards the east. He then takes a left turn, drives 19 km, turns left and drives 21 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 24 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 10 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
A
7 km to the east
B
4 km to the west
C
5 km to the north
D
2 km to the south
64. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All phones are cars. All phones are lights. Conclusions: (I) Some cars are lights. (II) All lights are phones.
A
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
B
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
C
Only conclusion (II) follows.
D
Only conclusion (I) follows.
65. If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 7381564, which of the following digits will be second from the left in the new number thus formed?
A
8
B
2
C
4
D
6
66. In a certain code language, P # Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’, P @ Q means ‘P is the husband of Q’, P & Q means ‘P is the sister of Q’, and P % Q means ‘P is the father of Q’. Based on the above, how is R related to O if ‘R @ V # E & K % O’?
A
Father’s father
B
Sister's husband
C
Mother's father
D
Father's mother
67. Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? IHT KJS MLR ONQ ?
A
OPP
B
QPP
C
HYU
D
PTR
68. PI 13 is related to SM 17 in a certain way. In the same way, HA 24 is related to KE 28. To which of the given options is RK 35 related, following the same logic?
A
VO 38
B
VQ 39
C
UN 38
D
UO 39
69. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 97 80 63 46 29 ?
A
8
B
14
C
12
D
10
70. Refer to the number series given below and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Left) 6 2 7 2 6 4 8 4 7 4 3 3 4 2 6 7 1 9 7 4 7 9 1 6 5 8 5 (Right) How many such even numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
4
B
2
C
3
D
1
71. Saurabh ranked 17 th from the top and 28 th from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in the class?
A
35
B
44
C
33
D
34
72. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. OWES - WOES - OESW LITE - ILTE - LTEI
A
JUTE - UJTE - EUTJ
B
EARN - AERN - ERNA
C
PAIN - APIN - AINP
D
VAST - VSAT - TSAV
73. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
CBD
B
TTU
C
AZB
D
VUW
74. Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers only. (Left) 6 7 8 9 & 5 £ & $ £ $ 1 * * # * € 8 % 8 © 7 (Right) How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A
Six
B
Four
C
Five
D
Three
75. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? 5 10 10 20 20 40 40 ?
A
80
B
20
C
50
D
40
76. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? UDB VEC WFD XGE ?
A
YHL
B
YHZ
C
YHW
D
YHF
77. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 26 × 2 − 8 ÷ 4 + 9 = ?
A
36
B
39
C
35
D
38
78. A, B, C, E, F, P and Q are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only four people sit between C and E when counted from the right of C. C sits third to the left of P. B sits third to the left of F. Q is an immediate neighbour of both E and P. How many people sit between A and Q when counted from the right of A? 1854
A
Three
B
Two
C
One
D
Four
79. Announced in 2025, in which state is Similipal National Park located?
A
Odisha
B
Karnataka
C
Bihar
D
Madhya Pradesh
80. As per the Sustainable Development Goals – National Indicator Framework Progress Report, 2025, population covered by social protection systems has increased to which level in 2025, indicating substantial expansion in social security coverage in the country?
A
59.8%
B
64.3%
C
72.7%
D
81.6%
81. The GST Council has scraped how much percentage tax on all individual life and health insurance policies, effective 22 September 2025?
A
12%
B
14%
C
18%
D
16%
82. What is India's Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) Index score as per the SDG Index released in June 2025?
A
67
B
72
C
58
D
53
83. At the 2025 Kalinga Literary Festival, Professor Arunava Sinha won an award for his translation of stories by?
A
Jeet Thayil
B
Savie Karnel
C
Vikas Swarup
D
Sandipan Chattopadhyay
84. Who took oath as the ninth Chief Minister of Delhi at the Ramlila Maidan on 20 February 2025?
A
Manjinder Singh Sirsa
B
Rekha Gupta
C
Ravinder Indraj
D
Arvind Kejriwal
85. In which of the following countries did Mahendra Gurjar set a world record in para javelin in 2025?
A
Switzerland
B
Brazil
C
India
D
Germany
86. When was the 56 th meeting of the Monetary Policy Committee held?
A
4, 5 and 6 July 2025
B
4, 5 and 6 October 2025
C
4, 5 and 6 September 2025
D
4, 5 and 6 August 2025
87. When did South Korea host the World Environment Day in 2025, as designated by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)?
A
8 June
B
5 May
C
22 April
D
5 June
88. Which two organisations have collaborated to develop a Close Quarter Battle (CQB) Carbine for the Indian Armed Forces?
A
DRDO and Bharat Forge
B
HAL and Tata Advanced Systems
C
ISRO and BEML
D
BEL and L&T
89. Which of the following is the main benefit of the Facial Recognition System (FRS) highlighted during the agenda of the August 2025 Parliamentary Consultative Committee meeting on Mission Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0?
A
Ensuring benefits reach only genuine beneficiaries
B
Monitoring attendance of Anganwadi staff in real time
C
Expanding nutritional coverage to private school children
D
Providing digital tablets to all Anganwadi workers
90. Who has been chosen for the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for the year 2024?
A
Greta Thunberg
B
Angela Merkel
C
Michelle Bachelet
D
Malala Yousafzai
91. The Parliament of which country passed the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025?
A
Nepal
B
Kenya
C
India
D
China
92. In April 2025, which IPL franchise became the first team to reach 150 victories in the history of the tournament?
A
Kolkata Knight Riders
B
Chennai Super Kings
C
Royal Challengers Bengaluru
D
Mumbai Indians
93. The city of Awaza, the venue of the Third UN Conference on Landlocked Developing Countries (2025), is located in which nation?
A
Turkmenistan
B
Kyrgyz Republic
C
Uzbekistan
D
Kazakhstan
94. GARBH-INi-DRISHTI, which was launched at Translational Health Science and Technology Institute (THSTI) in February 2025, provides access to an unprecedented wealth of clinical data, images and biospecimens collected from over 12,000 _______.
A
cancer and AIDS patients
B
patients suffering from haemophilia and other blood diseases
C
patients who survived COVID-19
D
pregnant women, newborns and postpartum mothers
95. Which organisation typically supports the implementation of the 'Sports and Games for the Disabled' scheme?
A
Ministry of Education
B
Reserve Bank of India
C
Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
D
Indian Railways
96. Which country along with Indian Air Force conducted their first-ever joint special operations exercise, 'Tiger Claw', from 26 May to 10 June 2025?
A
United Arab Emirates
B
Germany
C
Russia
D
United States of America
97. In March 2025, who among the following won the Prague Masters (Masters section) 2025 chess title?
A
Anish Giri
B
Aravindh Chithambaram
C
R Praggnanandhaa
D
Ediz Gürel
98. Which of the following ministries launched Phase 01 of India’s Social Protection Data Pooling Exercise in March 2025 to strengthen welfare schemes and support vulnerable groups through better data consolidation at the Central level?
A
Ministry of Home Affairs
B
Ministry of Rural Development
C
Ministry of Finance
D
Ministry of Labour and Employment "
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