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Group D — Test 30
00:00
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01. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding cell type and shape?
A
The red blood cell (RBC) is disc-shaped with a central depression.
B
The nerve cell is long and branched in shape.
C
The muscle cell is spindle-shaped.
D
The white blood cell (WBC) has a round and fixed shape.
02. A body of mass 5 kg is initially at rest. A constant force of 20 N acts on it for 4 s. What is the final velocity of the body?
A
12 m/s
B
20 m/s
C
16 m/s
D
8 m/s
03. Which metal will displace iron from iron sulfate solution?
A
Copper
B
Zinc
C
Silver
D
Chromium
04. Why does ice float on the surface of water?
A
Because ice is at a lower temperature
B
Because the weight of ice is very small
C
Because the density of ice is less than that of water
D
Because it displaces water equal to its weight
05. In a school garden, butterflies often visit flowers while squirrels feed on nuts. What types of consumers are these organisms?
A
Butterflies – herbivores, Squirrels – herbivores
B
Butterflies – omnivores, Squirrels – carnivores
C
Butterflies – carnivores, Squirrels – omnivores
D
Butterflies – parasites, Squirrels – decomposers
06. Which type of cells are used by organisms like hydra for reproduction in the process budding?
A
Photosynthetic cells
B
Gametic cells
C
Stomatal cells
D
Regenerative cells
07. The basic modification with a “prefix” or “suffix” in the nomenclature is the indicator of:
A
Nature of the surface area
B
Nature of the boiling point
C
Nature of the melting point
D
Nature of the functional Group
08. In a circuit diagram, the symbol for a cell is represented by which of the following?
A
One long and one short line parallel to each other
B
A rectangle with a diagonal line
C
Two equal lines parallel to each other
D
A circle with a cross inside
09. Why do isobars, despite having the same mass number, exhibit different chemical properties?
A
Because they belong to the same group in the periodic table
B
Because they have the same number of protons
C
Because they have the same number of neutrons in their nuclei
D
Because their atomic numbers and electronic configurations differ
10. What type of bond is formed when a metal reacts with a non-metal?
A
Covalent bond
B
Hydrogen bond
C
Ionic bond
D
Metallic bond
11. Which wave characteristic determines the loudness of a sound?
A
Pitch
B
Amplitude
C
Frequency
D
Wavelength
12. Which one of the following statements is TRUE about vasectomy?
A
It kills the sperm cells reaching the uterus.
B
It removes the seminal vesicles.
C
It stops testosterone production.
D
It blocks the vas deferens to prevent sperm release.
13. Which of the following types of human muscles show alternate light and dark bands when stained appropriately?
A
Involuntary muscles
B
Skeletal muscles
C
Muscles of the alimentary canal
D
Visceral muscles
14. Tooth enamel starts corroding when the pH in the mouth falls below _____.
A
5.5
B
7.5
C
6.5
D
4.5
15. Which of the following has branched-chain hydrocarbons?
A
Butane
B
Ethane
C
Propane
D
Isobutane
16. When resistors are connected in series, which quantity remains the same across all resistors?
A
Current
B
Voltage
C
Resistance
D
Power
17. Which of the following statements best differentiates a compound from a solution?
A
Compounds are always liquid, but solutions can be in any state.
B
Compounds are mixtures of two or more elements, while solutions are mixtures of compounds only.
C
A compound can be separated by physical methods, while a solution cannot.
D
A compound has a fixed composition and definite properties, unlike a solution.
18. The size of the image formed by a convex mirror _________.
A
is always larger than the object
B
is always smaller than the object
C
can be larger or smaller depending on object position
D
is always equal to the object
19. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in flowering plant reproduction?
A
Fertilisation → Pollination → Embryo → Seedling
B
Pollination → Fertilisation → Seedling → Embryo
C
Pollination → Fertilisation → Embryo → Seedling
D
Embryo → Seedling → Pollination → Fertilisation
20. Which of the following is the correct reason for why fruits fall from the tree when the branches of the tree are shaken vigorously?
A
The fruits fall down due to frictional force.
B
The fruits fall down due to change in momentum.
C
The fruits fall down due to action reaction forces.
D
The fruits fall down due to inertia.
21. A student complains of difficulty in reading the blackboard clearly while sitting at the back of the class, but can read a book at 25 cm without difficulty. Which statement is correct for his condition?
A
He has myopia and needs a concave lens
B
He has hypermetropia and needs a convex lens
C
He has cataract and needs surgery
D
He has presbyopia and needs bifocals
22. A student says, “Plants don’t have a nervous system, so they cannot respond to anything.” What would be the correct scientific response?
A
Only animals can show responses.
B
Plants respond using hormonal and electrical-chemical signals.
C
The student is right; plants are non-living.
D
Plants use nerves like animals do.
23. Which of the following is NOT a cell organelle?
A
Golgi Apparatus
B
Endoplasmic Reticulum
C
Mitochondria
D
Cytoplasm
24. What is the SI unit of Pressure?
A
mmHg
B
Torr
C
Pascal
D
Atmosphere
25. During the transformation of energy from one form to another, such as gravitational potential energy converting into kinetic energy during free fall, ___________.
A
the total energy before and after the transformation remains the same
B
new energy is constantly created, balancing the loss of the original form
C
the total mechanical energy increases, adhering to the law
D
energy is gradually lost to the environment, violating the law
26. In △ ABC, BD ⟂ AC at D and ∠ DBC = 71°. E is a point on BC such that ∠ CAE = 57°. What is the measure of ∠ AEB?
A
71°
B
76°
C
62°
D
68°
27. Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7% per annum, respectively. Salil borrowed an amount of ₹4,60,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹) between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Salil after 3 years.
A
47,800
B
48,300
C
49,300
D
49,800
28. The monthly incomes of two friends Gopal and Akshay are in the ratio 5 : 8 and each of them saves ₹78,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly expenditure is 1 : 4, then find the monthly income of Gopal (in ₹).
A
96,500
B
97,500
C
1,36,500
D
98,500
29. In 532 litres solution of acid and water, the ratio of acid and water is 4:3. How many litres of acid must be added to it to get the solution in which the ratio of acid and water is 8:4? 5676
A
154
B
153
C
152
D
151
30. A woman travelled at a speed of 20 m/min for 80 min, and at a speed of 50 m/min for 70 min. Her average speed (in m/min) is:
A
27
B
34
C
38
D
40
31. In a polling booth with 9000 valid votes, four candidates P, Q, R and S contested, and a NOTA option was also available. Exactly 1% of the total votes went to NOTA. Candidate Q received 25% of the votes secured by P. The combined votes of R and S totaled 5,830, distributed between them in the ratio 3 : 2. How many votes did the winning candidate receive?
A
4398
B
3984
C
3894
D
3498
32. The cost price of a box of sharpeners is ₹2,400. The shopkeeper gave 41% of discount on the cost price. What is the selling price (in ₹)?
A
1,416
B
1,494
C
1,496
D
1,242
33. Two engines of trains 60 km apart start towards each other at speeds of 16 km/hr and 29 km/hr, respectively. After how much time will they meet each other? (Assume the length of engine is negligible.) 3622
A
72 minutes
B
80 minutes
C
86 minutes
D
90 minutes
34. A sphere of diameter 14 cm is cut into 4 equal parts. What is the total surface area (in cm 2 ) of the four parts?
A
4408
B
2464
C
3606
D
1232
35. A shopkeeper bought certain goods for ₹2,500 and sold them for ₹3,250. Find his profit percentage.
A
25%
B
20%
C
30%
D
40%
36. The average age of 57 students of a class is 19 years. If the age of the teacher is also included, the average age of the whole group becomes 20 years. The age (in years) of the teacher is:
A
75
B
79
C
77
D
71
37. A cash payment that will settle a bill for 600 pairs of sandals at ₹91 per pair of sandals with the successive discounts of 25% and 25% with a further discount of 28% on cash payment is:
A
₹22,113
B
₹22,111
C
₹22,104
D
₹22,101
38. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 3, 24 and 8 days, respectively. How long (in days) will they take to do twice the same work, working together?
A
8
B
5
C
4
D
12
39. The sum of two integers is 40. If the difference between them is 14, find the larger integer.
A
27
B
33
C
17
D
25
40. The present age of Mr. Gupta is three times the present age of his daughter. Six years hence, the ratio of their ages will be 5 : 2. What is the present age of the daughter?
A
20 years
B
22 years
C
18 years
D
24 years
41.
A
4
B
6
C
5
D
3
42. The length, breadth, and height of a cuboid are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If the length, breadth, and height are increased by 100%, 50%, and 80%, respectively, find the percentage increase in the volume of the cuboid.
A
404%
B
402%
C
440%
D
450%
43. What is the smallest natural number that should be added to 4478 such that a remainder of 2 is left when the resulting number is divided by each of the numbers 56, 80, 16 and 60?
A
564
B
584
C
549
D
574
44. If the mean proportional of A and 112 is 28, then find the value of A.
A
7
B
6
C
5
D
4
45. A typist takes 40 minutes to type 2 pages. How long (in minutes) will he take to type 96 pages? 2686
A
1920
B
1930
C
1925
D
1910
46. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 2 8 + 7 5 > 9 2 @ 3 = 4 6 % 3 & 8 4 % 9 1 8 3 # 7 6 9 (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
A
Two
B
Four
C
One
D
Three
47. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 131 102 73 44 15 ?
A
−13
B
−10
C
−11
D
−14
48. All 37 students in a class are standing in a row facing north. Nisha is 13 th from the left end while Manasa is 15 th from the right end. How many people stand between Nisha and Manasa?
A
10
B
12
C
7
D
9
49. In a certain code language, ‘students are learning’ is coded as ‘ab mn pq’ and ‘learning is fun’ is coded as ‘st mn xy’. How is ‘learning’ coded in the given language? 8995
A
ab
B
mn
C
st
D
xy
50. Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the following series to make it logically complete? OSW 24, GKO 35, YCG 46, QUY 57, IMQ 68, ?
A
AEI 79
B
AIE 79
C
AEI 78
D
AOI 79
51. Devesh starts from Point Y and drives 21 km towards the east. He then takes a left turn, drives 25 km, turns left and drives 67 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 29 km. He takes a right turn, drives 46 km, turns left, drives 41 km to stop at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
A
95 km towards the south
B
91 km towards the north
C
97 km towards the south
D
93 km towards the south
52. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). (Left) 1 5 3 7 2 8 4 9 6 1 3 7 5 4 2 8 9 6 3 7 1 5 4 9 8 2 6 (Right) How many times does the perfect cube appear in the given series?
A
Nine
B
Eleven
C
Seven
D
Six
53. If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number 4635923, what will be the sum of the digits which are second from the left and second from the right in the new number thus formed?
A
7
B
9
C
10
D
8
54. Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) in the following series to make it logically complete? IXB GWE EVH CUK ?
A
BTM
B
BSN
C
ASM
D
ATN
55. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All trees are bushes. All bushes are herbs. Conclusions: (I): Some herbs are bushes. (II): All trees are herbs.
A
Only conclusion (II) follows
B
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
C
Only conclusion (I) follows
D
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
56. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 1, 3, 16, 5, 7, 144, 9, 11,?
A
196
B
324
C
169
D
400
57. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
XBC
B
PSU
C
HKM
D
JMO
58. IJ 8 is related to KE −1 in a certain way. In the same way, TP 3 is related to VK −6. To which of the given options is PQ 12 related, following the same logic?
A
RK 3
B
SL 5
C
SK 5
D
RL 3
59. Six students, S1, S2, S3, S4, S5 and S6, are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. The student S6 is sitting next to both S5 and S2. S1 and S3 are sitting next to each other. S4 is the common neighbour of S2 and S3. S1 is second to the right of S4. Who among the following is sitting fourth to the right of S1?
A
S2
B
S3
C
S6
D
S4
60. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (9, 31, 26) (13, 43, 38)
A
(20, 56, 51)
B
(15 ,49 ,44)
C
(14, 38, 33)
D
(12, 32, 27)
61. Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two set of pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. JHK−IGJ LJM−KIL 6437
A
DBE−CAD
B
DAC−CAD
C
DBE−BAC
D
DAC−BZC
62. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some roads are fans. No fan is a car. Conclusions: (I) Some roads are cars. (II) Some fans are roads.
A
Only conclusion (II) follows.
B
Only conclusion (I) follows.
C
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
D
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
63. Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. E sits to the immediate right of D. F sits fourth to the left of D. Only one person sits between B and D. C sits to the immediate left of B. A sits second to the left of E. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that group?
A
CB
B
BA
C
FE
D
AD
64. Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 8 1 3 4 3 5 1 8 1 9 1 2 7 1 5 8 9 7 3 8 8 2 3 3 2 1 2 (Right) How many such even numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number? 4679
A
5
B
6
C
4
D
7
65. Each of the digits in the number 2134567 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. What will be the sum of the digits which are second from the left and second from the right in the new number thus formed?
A
6
B
7
C
8
D
5
66. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 721 723 727 733 741 ?
A
748
B
749
C
753
D
751
67. GM 14 is related to EJ 16 in a certain way. In the same way, KQ 22 is related to IN 24. To which of the given options is OU 27 related, following the same logic?
A
PR 29
B
PT 28
C
QT 29
D
MR 29
68. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
CG-JD
B
EI-LF
C
GK-NH
D
IM-PK
69. Each of the digits in the number 2175684 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. The positions of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the original number?
A
Three
B
Two
C
None
D
One
70. Jiten starts from Point Y and drives 28 km towards South. He then takes a right turn, drives 71 km, turns left and drives 69 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 44 km. He takes a left turn, drives 51 km. He then turns right, drives 27 km to stop at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
49 km towards south
B
44 km towards south
C
46 km towards north
D
48 km towards north
71. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 3 5 2 8 7 4 6 2 5 1 4 9 8 2 6 8 4 1 6 7 3 4 5 2 4 7 (Right) How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
A
Three
B
More than three
C
One
D
Two
72. In a certain code language, P + Q means ‘P is the mother of Q’, P # Q means ‘P is the brother of Q’, P & Q means ‘P is the sister of Q’, and P % Q means ‘P is the father of Q’. How is G related to S if ‘G & H % I & T # S’?
A
Mother's brother
B
Father's brother
C
Mother's mother
D
Father's sister
73. All 30 students in a class are standing in a row facing north. Arun is 7 th from the right end while Harish is 8 th from the left end. How many people stand between Arun and Harish?
A
13
B
15
C
14
D
17
74. In a certain code language, ‘he fix gadgets’ is coded as ‘pd rt ds’ and ‘fix this pen’ is coded as ‘nq uz pd’. How is ‘fix’ coded in the given language?
A
ds
B
uz
C
nq
D
pd
75. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. E sits third to the right of B. C sits to the immediate left of F. C is not an immediate neighbour of B. D sits to the immediate right of A. The position(s) of how many persons will remain unchanged if all persons are arranged in English alphabetical order in clockwise direction starting from A (including A)?
A
Three
B
Two
C
One
D
Four
76. Which of the following banks launched a TAB-based digital onboarding process for Non- Resident Indians (NRIs) in January 2025?
A
ICICI Bank
B
State Bank of India
C
HDFC Bank
D
Punjab National Bank
77. Which authority of India hosted the 25 th Meeting of the South Asian Telecommunication Regulators’ Council (SATRC‑25)?
A
National Informatics Centre
B
Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
C
Ministry of Communications
D
Department of Telecommunications
78. In June 2025, Bhashini signed an MoU with which government entity to integrate real‑time translation on passenger platforms?
A
Centre for Railway Information Systems
B
Ministry of Home Affairs
C
Unique Identification Authority of India
D
Ministry of Communications and Information Technology
79. Who is the youngest female para swimmer in the world to cross the English Channel and a recipient of the World Open Water Swimming Association (WOWSA) Award, 2024, for Adaptive Performance?
A
Deepa Malik
B
Jiya Rai
C
Devanshi Satija
D
Prachi Yadav
80. How many tribal grassroots functionaries and village-level change leaders does the Aadi KARMAYOGI initiative aim to build for responsive governance?
A
25 lakh
B
10 lakh
C
20 lakh
D
15 lakh
81. What is the new Loan-to-Value (LTV) ratio, set by the Reserve Bank of India for loans below ₹2.5 lakh in June 2025?
A
85%
B
80%
C
75%
D
70%
82. The Corruption Perceptions Index 2024, released by Transparency International in February 2025, ranked which country as the least corrupt?
A
Denmark
B
Finland
C
Singapore
D
Switzerland
83. Which of the following countries became the member of National Development Bank in May 2025?
A
Bangladesh
B
United Arab Emirates
C
Algeria
D
Egypt
84. As reported in July 2025, what is the name of the new ultra-rare blood antigen discovered in a woman from the Kolar district of Karnataka?
A
CRAB
B
BRIB
C
CRIB
D
CROB
85. Which round of talks between India and the European Union for a Free Trade Agreement kicked off on 12 May 2025, in Brussels?
A
7th
B
11th
C
9th
D
13th
86. In January 2025, in which city did the NDRF launch a rescue operation after a boat capsized?
A
Ujjain
B
Varanasi
C
Nashik
D
Patna
87. According to the Union Budget 2025-26, how many National Centres of Excellence for Skilling are to be set up with global expertise and partnerships to equip Indian youth with the skills required for “Make for India, Make for the World” manufacturing?
A
4
B
1
C
10
D
5
88. As notified in April 2025, a research study of which of the following institutes revealed that surface ozone is silently threatening India’s food crops?
A
Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur
B
Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi
C
Indian Institute of Technology, Kharagpur
D
Indian Institute of Technology, Mumbai
89. In January 2025, President Droupadi Murmu, at Rashtrapati Bhavan, honoured which specific para-athlete with the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award?
A
Devendra Jhajharia
B
Praveen Kumar
C
Nishad Kumar
D
Preeti Pal
90. How much accident compensation was announced by Indian railways in June 2025 for its employees without paying any insurance premium?
A
₹50 lakh
B
₹25 lakh
C
₹1.5 crore
D
₹1 crore
91. The Indian Army contingent that took part in the fourth edition of Exercise AUSTRAHIND 2025 held in Australia was commanded by a battalion of ______.
A
Rajput Regiment
B
Madras Regiment
C
Sikh Regiment
D
Gorkha Rifles
92. Which of the following states/Union Territories has the largest number of wildlife sanctuaries as of 2023?
A
Uttar Pradesh
B
West Bengal
C
Andaman & Nicobar
D
Kerala
93. In June 2025, which director turned cinema by converting toy-train coaches into a screening venue at Kurseong?
A
Ravi Shankar
B
Rohit Shetty
C
Girija Devi
D
Rishav Choudhary
94. In which event did Bindyarani Devi set a new national record at the Dehradun National Games, 2025?
A
Total lift (women’s 55 kg)
B
Clean and jerk (women’s 55 kg)
C
Snatch (women’s 49 kg)
D
Snatch (women’s 55 kg)
95. Who became the first Indian chess player to rank World No. 1 in live chess ratings in 2025?
A
D Gukesh
B
R Praggnanandhaa
C
Viswanathan Anand
D
Arjun Erigaisi "
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