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Group D — Test 29
00:00
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01. What type of solution causes water to move out of a cell through the plasma membrane, making the cell shrink?
A
Hypotonic solution
B
Dilute solution
C
Isotonic solution
D
Hypertonic solution
02. Which of the following tissues have contractile proteins that contract and relax to cause movement?
A
Squamous epithelium tissue
B
Nervous tissue
C
Muscular tissue
D
Cuboidal epithelium tissue
03. A smooth ball is resting on an ideal frictionless plane inclined on both sides. The ball is released from the left and the angle of right plane inclination is small in Case-I and zero in Case-II (flat). The ball travels _________ compared to the equally inclined case.
A
farther distance in Case-I and moves forever in Case-II
B
small distance in Case-I and equal distance in Case-II
C
equal distance in Case-I and moves forever in Case-II
D
equal distance in Case-I and farther distance in Case-II
04. Which of the following substances is NOT an example of biodegradable substance?
A
Spoilt food
B
Waste paper
C
Vegetable peels
D
Plastic bags
05. Washing soda is prepared by heating which compound?
A
Sodium chloride
B
Calcium oxide
C
Sodium bicarbonate (baking soda)
D
Calcium carbonate
06. Which of the following statements correctly defines the principal axis of a spherical mirror?
A
The line passing through the focus and object
B
The tangent at the pole
C
The perpendicular line drawn from the pole
D
The line passing through the centre of curvature and pole
07. Consider the following statements and select the correct option. Statement A: Salts of strong acids and strong bases are neutral with pH 7. Statement B: Sodium chloride is an example of a neutral salt.
A
Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.
B
Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.
C
Both statements A and B are correct.
D
Both statements A and B are incorrect.
08. In which of the following groups of organisms sex determination occurs due to environmental temperature?
A
All birds
B
All fishes
C
Few reptiles
D
Human beings
09. Which of the following is an advantage of vegetative propagation?
A
Plants grown this way take longer to bear fruits.
B
All new plants are genetically different from the parent.
C
It requires cross-pollination to occur.
D
It allows propagation of seedless plants such as banana.
10. Which of the following statements is true?
A
More work done in less time means more power.
B
Power decreases when work increases.
C
Power and work are independent of each other.
D
Work done does not affect power.
11. Which of the following substances have a high chance of contributing to the phenomenon of biological magnification?
A
Orange peel
B
Pesticide
C
Rose petals
D
Neem bark
12. Which of the following statements about the Archimede’s Principle is correct?
A
When a body is immersed fully or partially in a fluid, it experiences a downward force that is much less than the weight of the fluid displaced by it.
B
When a body is immersed fully or partially in a fluid, it experiences a downward force that is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by it.
C
When a body is immersed fully or partially in a fluid, it experiences an upward force that is much less than the weight of the fluid displaced by it.
D
When a body is immersed fully or partially in a fluid, it experiences an upward force that is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by it.
13. What is an ion in chemistry?
A
A charged atom or molecule
B
A radioactive stable particle
C
An atom with only neutrons
D
A neutral molecule of atom
14. The angle between the incident ray and the emergent ray from a prism is called __________.
A
Angle of incidence
B
Angle of prism
C
Angle of deviation
D
Critical angle
15. Which of the following statements about complex permanent tissue is correct?
A
Complex tissues are made of identical cells performing different functions.
B
Xylem and phloem are complex tissues that help in conduction and form vascular bundles.
C
Complex tissues consist of loosely packed parenchyma cells for storage.
D
Complex tissues are only found in animals for transporting oxygen.
16. What are the unwanted impurities such as soil and sand present in an ore called?
A
Slag
B
Alloy
C
Flux
D
Gangue
17. Three resistors of 4 Ω , 8 Ω , and 12 Ω are connected in series across a 12 V battery. The current in the circuit is:
A
4 A
B
2 A
C
1 A
D
0.5 A
18. Which of the following observations from Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment led to the conclusion that most of the atom's volume is empty?
A
Alpha particles were attracted towards electrons in the atom.
B
Some alpha particles were deflected by small angles.
C
Most of the alpha particles passed straight through the gold foil.
D
A few alpha particles were deflected by 180°.
19. Why the manufacturers of chips flush chips bags with nitrogen before packing?
A
Nitrogen prevents rancidity.
B
Nitrogen prevents reduction of oil.
C
Nitrogen acts as preservative.
D
Nitrogen acts as taste enhancer.
20. In sexually reproducing organisms, how many versions of each trait does a child inherit?
A
One version from father only
B
One version in total
C
One version from each parent
D
Two versions from the mother only
21. Which of the following statements is correct about the force?
A
Force is a scalar quantity measured in Newton.
B
Force is a scalar quantity measured in Joule.
C
Force is a vector quantity measured in Newton.
D
Force is a vector quantity measured in Joule.
22. If resistors are connected in series, the total or equivalent resistance is ________.
A
Always less than any single resistor
B
Product of individual resistances
C
Reciprocal of sum of reciprocals
D
Sum of individual resistances
23. Propanone belongs to which homologous series?
A
Ester
B
Aldehyde
C
Ketone
D
Alcohol
24. The calculated formula unit mass of Na 2 SO 4 is:
A
148 u
B
142 u
C
140 u
D
146 u
25. The frequency of a sound wave is 250 Hz. What is its time period?
A
25 s
B
0.004 s
C
40 s
D
0.25 s
26. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 2, 5 and 20 days, respectively. How long (in days) will they take to do thrice the same work, working together?
A
12
B
8
C
4
D
5
27. A solid sphere of radius 7 cm is coated with a layer of paint that increases its radius to 7.5 cm, find the volume of the painted layer. (Use π = 22/7 and round off your answer to the nearest integer)
A
331 cm3
B
440 cm3
C
330 cm3
D
442 cm3
28. Amit and Deeksha together invested ₹46,800 in a business. At the end of the year, out of a total profit of ₹8,700, Amit's share was ₹2,900. What was the investment of Amit?
A
₹17,445
B
₹15,600
C
₹16,730
D
₹15,225
29. A class of 69 students took a Physics test. 17 students had an average score of 94. The other students had an average score of 84. What is the average score (rounded off to one decimal place) of the whole class?
A
86.5
B
95.7
C
89.3
D
82.8
30. Arrange the following schemes in the ascending order of their discounts.
A
B, A, C
B
A, B, C
C
C, B, A
D
A, C, B
31. P is any point inside the rectangle ABCD. If PA = 86 cm, PB = 49 cm and PC = 79 cm, then the length of PD (in cm) is equal to:
A
105
B
104
C
107
D
106
32. Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7% per annum, respectively. Keshav borrowed an amount of ₹4,80,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹) between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Keshav after 2 years.
A
33,600
B
34,600
C
35,100
D
33,100
33. The ratio of the price per unit of lemon chocolate to that of strawberry chocolate is 22 : 6, and a family consumes them in the ratio of 14 : 23 by quantity. Determine the ratio of the expenditure on strawberry chocolate to that on lemon chocolate.
A
71 : 159
B
67 : 156
C
69 : 154
D
68 : 157
34. A hollow metallic sphere with an external radius of 10 cm and an internal radius of 6 cm is melted and recast into a solid cone with a base radius of 8 cm. What is the height of the cone?
A
49 cm
B
45 cm
C
52 cm
D
42 cm
35. A camp has provisions for 42 pupils for 12 days. In how many days will the same provisions finish off if the strength of the camp is increased to 63 pupils?
A
8
B
11
C
7
D
9
36. The average age of 25 students of a class is 27 years. If the age of the teacher is also included, the average age of the whole group becomes 28 years. The age (in years) of the teacher is:
A
53
B
55
C
52
D
56
37. A number when multiplied by 3 and then added to 8, results in 29. What is the number?
A
8
B
6
C
5
D
7
38. The income of Raman is ₹68,500. He saves 22.5% of his income. If his income increases by 14% and expenditure increases by 40%, then his savings will:
A
increase by ₹11,642
B
increase by ₹11,647
C
decrease by ₹11,647
D
decrease by ₹11,645
39. A baker sells 100 cupcakes and earns a profit equal to the selling price of 20 cupcakes. What is his profit percentage?
A
25%
B
33.33%
C
18%
D
20%
40. A flight travels a distance of 1,200 km in 3 hours. What is the speed of the flight?
A
200 km/hr
B
400 km/hr
C
425 km/hr
D
382 km/hr
41. Five years ago, the ratio of the ages of two buildings was 7 : 2. Five years hence, the ratio will be 3 : 1. What is the present age of the newer building?
A
55 years
B
45 years
C
50 years
D
40 years
42. 3208
A
56 km/hr
B
49 km/hr
C
41 km/hr
D
48 km/hr
43. The marked price of a bed is ₹744, which is 36% above the cost price. If the profit percentage is 20%, find the discount percentage (rounded off to two decimal places).
A
11.27%
B
11.76%
C
12.89%
D
10.39%
44. If 20% of a number is added to 72, then the result is the same number. 60% of the same number is:
A
84
B
64
C
74
D
54
45. If the price of a product is first increased by 18% and then decreased by 22%. Find the percentage change in the price (correct to two places of decimals). 5485
A
Increased 7.96%
B
Decreased 5.85%
C
Increased 5.85%
D
Decreased 7.96%
46. If 30 workers earn ₹4140 in 4 days, how much (in ₹) will 55 workers earn in 10 days?
A
18,725
B
19,175
C
18,475
D
18,975
47. Aditi starts from Point A and drives 10 km towards the west. She then takes a left turn, drives 8 km, turns right and drives 5 km. She then takes a left turn and drives 8 km. She then takes a left turn and drives 15 km. She takes a final right turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point D. How far (shortest distance) and in which direction is Point D with respect from Point A? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
20 km towards south
B
11 km towards east
C
18 km towards south
D
16 km towards north
48. In a certain code language, ‘CORM’ is coded as ‘9518’ and ‘MORE’ is coded as ‘5831’. What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language? 1744
A
8
B
3
C
1
D
5
49. Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) in the following series to make it logically complete? IDR LGQ OJP RMO ?
A
UPN
B
UOO
C
VON
D
VPO
50. Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the following series to make it logically complete? ECP 1 GEM −2 IGJ 4 KIG −8 ?
A
MKK −13
B
KMD 15
C
MKD 16
D
LKM −19
51. In a certain code language, ‘A ? B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’, ‘A = B’ means ‘A is the son of B’, ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ and ‘A √ B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’. How is C related to L if ‘C ? D = E @ F √ L’?
A
Brother's daughter
B
Daughter
C
Sister's daughter
D
Brother's wife
52. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some books are novels. All novels are stories. Conclusions: (I): Some stories are books. (II): No books are stories.
A
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
B
Only conclusion (I) follows
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
D
Only conclusion (II) follows
53. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? 20 34 21 35 22 36 ?
A
23
B
38
C
24
D
37
54. If + means - , - means x , x means ÷ , ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 12 - 15 ÷ 143 + 98 x 7 = ?
A
303
B
312
C
309
D
306
55. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some rabbits are fans. No fan is a car. Conclusions: (I): Some rabbits are cars. (II): Some fans are rabbits.
A
Only conclusion (I) follows
B
Only conclusion (II) follows
C
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
D
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
56. O, P, Q, R, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only three people sit to the left of P. Only R sits to the right of Q. Only three people sit between Q and O. X sits at some place to the left of Y but at some place to the right of W. How many people sit between W and Y? 6310
A
Four
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
57. TQKG is related to XUOK in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, SPJF is related to WTNJ. To which of the given options is ROIE related, following the same logic?
A
VSMI
B
UQKI
C
VPMF
D
UPKF
58. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 316 562 149 379 433 (Right) (Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) (NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.) What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the third digit of the lowest number?
A
11
B
13
C
9
D
15
59. If ‘A’ stands for ‘×’, ‘B’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘C’ stands for ‘−’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘+’, what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 14 B 2 D 10 A 5 C 12 = ?
A
48
B
43
C
50
D
45
60. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (6, 72, 12) (5, 60, 12) 4140
A
(3, 36, 12)
B
(4, 48, 13)
C
(7, 82, 12)
D
(2, 24, 14)
61. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. SWAP - WSAP - PAWS ALSO - LASO - OSLA
A
EARN - AERN - ARNE
B
CROW - CORW - WORC
C
TIDE - ITDE - EIDT
D
USER - SUER - RESU
62. Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows. (Left) 7 $ 5 @ 3 ! 3 5 6 7 & % $ 3 # 2 7 + ? > < (Right) If all the numbers are dropped from the series, which of the following will be seventh from the right?
A
@
B
%
C
$
D
#
63. Seven boxes A, B, C, D, I, J and K are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. K is kept second from the bottom. Only three boxes are kept between K and I. D is kept at one of the positions below K. Only B is kept between I and J. A is kept at one of the positions above I. How many boxes are kept between C and D? 8765
A
Three
B
One
C
Four
D
Two
64. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
HL-OJ
B
FJ-MH
C
BF-IE
D
DH-KF
65. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 10, 23, 49, 88, 140, ?
A
205
B
206
C
207
D
204
66. If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 4651783. What will be the sum of the highest digit and the second from the left and first from the right in the new number thus formed? 4199
A
14
B
12
C
16
D
19
67. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 5 8 14 23 35 50 ?
A
68
B
65
C
67
D
69
68. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
LI-SL
B
VS-DV
C
DA-KD
D
MJ-TM
69. Raghu starts from Point Y and drives 18 km towards west. He then turns right and drives 26 km, takes a left turn, drives 30 km, turns left and drives 68 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 31 km. He takes a right turn, drives 42 km, turns left and drives 16 km to stop at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
95 km towards east
B
97 km towards east
C
89 km towards west
D
91 km towards west
70. A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. Only four people sit between B and A when counted from the right of B. B sits third to the left of X. W sits third to the left of Y. C is an immediate neighbour of both A and X. How many people sit between D and C when counted from the right of D?
A
One
B
Four
C
Three
D
Two
71. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) ? * + ? \ & 3 # 9 % 4 1 6 * @ 5 4 8 8 $ \ (Right) How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by another number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A
Four
B
Three
C
One
D
Two
72. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). (Counting to be done from left to right only.) (Left) 1 3 1 8 9 3 1 9 9 3 4 8 6 3 2 4 7 9 5 5 9 7 5 4 1 5 3 (Right) How many such even numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number? 4391
A
4
B
1
C
3
D
2
73. P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a row facing the north. S is sitting to the immediate left of Q.P is sitting to the immediate right of Q. U is sitting to the immediate right of P and immediate left of T. S and R are sitting at the ends of the line not necessarily in the same order. Who is sitting to the immediate right of T?
A
P
B
Q
C
R
D
S
74. In a certain code language, ‘LOVE’ is coded as ‘4958’ and ‘VALE’ is coded as ‘3589’. What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language? 1633
A
8
B
9
C
3
D
5
75. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one that follows the same logic. RAGE - ARGE - EARG QUIZ - UQIZ - ZUQI
A
HERD - EHRD - DEHR
B
KIND - KNID - DNIK
C
COLD - OCLD - DOLC
D
SAME - ASME - AMES
76. Srinivas ranked 2 nd from the top and 19 th from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in the class?
A
18
B
21
C
19
D
20
77. In August 2025, Union Health Secretary, Punya Salila Srivastava, virtually inaugurated an innovative national mechanism aimed at evaluating and improving state drug regulatory frameworks through an open and evidence-based approach named ________.
A
National Drug Regulatory Reform Index
B
Health Infrastructure Performance Index
C
State Health Regulatory Excellence Index
D
Pharmaceutical Compliance Monitoring Index
78. Which filmmaker returned to the Cannes Film Festival 2025 as a main jury member after winning the Grand Prix in 2024?
A
Vikramaditya Motwane
B
Payal Kapadia
C
Neeraj Ghaywan
D
Anuradha Roy
79. India joined which European drone programme as an observer in January 2025?
A
Predator XP
B
Global Hawk
C
Eurodrone
D
nEUROn
80. Which of the following schemes announced a financial outlay of ₹5,000 crore to promote research & innovation in the pharmaceutical and med-tech sectors in India?
A
Smart Cities Mission
B
PRIP scheme
C
Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan
D
Startup India
81. Who took office as the Deputy Governor of the RBI on 2 April 2025?
A
Michael Debroy
B
Poonam Gupta
C
Michael Patra
D
Ashwani Bhatia
82. Which of the following states became the first to launch the Tribal Genome Sequencing Project in July 2025?
A
Chhattisgarh
B
Odisha
C
Gujarat
D
Jharkhand
83. Which Indian footballer received the Padma Shri in 2025 for his contributions to the sport?
A
IM Vijayan
B
Sunil Chhetri
C
Sandesh Jhingan
D
Bhaichung Bhutia
84. Which polo team made history in 2025 by sweeping all major awards for the fourth consecutive year at the Indian Polo Awards held in Jaipur?
A
Achievers
B
Royal Riders
C
Desert Stallions
D
Jaipur Warriors
85. Who among the following won the Laureus World Action Sportsperson of the Year award in 2025?
A
Kelly Slater
B
Tom Pidcock
C
Chloe Kim
D
Yuto Horigome
86. India's 2030 climate target aims to reduce the intensity of emissions by what percentage as per the report by Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW) and Alliance for an Energy Efficient Economy (AEEE), published in 2025?
A
60%
B
20%
C
35%
D
45%
87. Which of the following states activated a 24×7 flood-control room after rivers Subarnarekha, Budhabalanga and Jalaka swelled in June 2025?
A
Bihar
B
West Bengal
C
Assam
D
Odisha
88. In May 2025, minutes after the PSLV-C61, carrying the earth observation satellite EOS- 09, lifted off from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, the space agency reported a glitch in the _____.
A
third stage of the launch vehicle
B
fourth stage of the launch vehicle
C
second stage of the launch vehicle
D
first stage of the launch vehicle
89. What was India’s rank in the Global Innovation Index (GII), 2025, released by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)?
A
38th
B
28th
C
43rd
D
33rd
90. Who won India’s only gold medal in women’s freestyle wrestling at the Asian Wrestling Championships, 2025?
A
Antim Panghal
B
Reetika Hooda
C
Manisha Bhanwala
D
Vinesh Phogat
91. Which country’s authorities were flagged by India in 2025 for hybrid cannabis smuggling via couriers?
A
Afghanistan
B
Myanmar
C
Thailand
D
Nigeria
92. India’s first-of-its-kind Urban Flood Management Cell (UFMC) powered by Canarys Automations Ltd was inaugurated in which of the following cities in July 2025?
A
Gorakhpur
B
Guwahati
C
Bhopal
D
Pune
93. According to the Union Budget 2025–26, how many new Day Care Cancer Centres will be set up in district hospitals in 2025–26?
A
175
B
150
C
100
D
200
94. The Emerging Science, Technology and Innovation Conclave (ESTIC) 2025, conducted in November 2025, was held in ___________.
A
Uttar Pradesh
B
New Delhi
C
Haryana
D
Maharashtra
95. Which Indian javelin thrower won the Ostrava Golden Spike event in 2025?
A
Annu Rani
B
Kishore Kumar
C
Neeraj Chopra
D
Rohit Yadav
96. What are the revised investment caps for Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) in corporate bonds for FY 2025-26, as announced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in April 2025?
A
12%
B
15%
C
10%
D
18% "
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