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Group D — Test 23
00:00
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01. When the height of an object is doubled, its potential energy becomes:
A
double
B
triple
C
half
D
zero
02. What type of image is formed by a concave mirror when the object is placed at infinity?
A
Highly diminished, real and inverted
B
Enlarged, virtual and upright
C
Highly enlarged and virtual
D
Same size as the object and real
03. Consider the following statements and select the correct option. Statement 1: A fuse is connected in series in an electric circuit. Statement 2: A fuse wire melts when the current exceeds a safe limit.
A
Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
B
Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
C
Only Statement 2 is correct.
D
Only Statement 1 is correct.
04. When an object falls freely near the Earth, the direction of its motion:
A
changes continuously
B
becomes opposite to gravity
C
remains the same
D
becomes horizontal
05. Which metal is placed just above copper in the reactivity series?
A
Zinc
B
Iron
C
Lead
D
Aluminium
06. Which of the following best describes the nutrition process in amoeba?
A
Diffusion → Ingestion → Digestion → Absorption
B
Ingestion → Digestion → Absorption → Egestion
C
Ingestion → Egestion → Absorption → Digestion
D
Absorption → Ingestion → Digestion → Egestion
07. Which mechanism leads to the folding of Mimosa pudica leaves when they are touched?
A
Change in pH of leaf cells
B
Change in temperature of the leaves
C
Change in light intensity at leaf surface
D
Change in the water content of leaf cells
08. Which part in the neuron i.e. nervous tissue is responsible for protein synthesis?
A
Axon
B
Synaptic bulb
C
Nissl granules
D
Dendrites
09. What does the atomic number of an element represent?
A
Number of neurons in an atom
B
Mass number of the atom
C
Total number of electrons and protons
D
Number of protons in an atom
10. When light ray passes from a rarer medium to a denser medium, it ________.
A
bends towards the normal
B
bends away from the normal
C
bends at a 90° angle
D
does not bend at all
11. Why does carbon form covalent bonds instead of ionic bonds?
A
Carbon has 8 valence electrons.
B
It has a very large atomic radius.
C
Carbon can easily gain or lose 4 electrons.
D
It is energetically unfavourable to lose or gain 4 electrons.
12. A common characteristic in all double displacement reaction is:
A
the reaction requires heat to initiate
B
exchange of metal ions between two metal salts
C
only one product is formed
D
the reaction mixture is always colourless
13. Which of the following substances burn without a flame?
A
Charcoal
B
LPG
C
Petrol
D
Wax
14. The molecular mass of HNO 3 is 63 atomic mass unit (u). What is atomic mass of oxygen (O)?
A
32u
B
48u
C
8u
D
16u
15. A particle starts from rest and moves with uniform acceleration. Which of the following represents the correct velocity-time graph for the particle?
A
A straight line passing through the origin with positive slope
B
A horizontal line
C
A straight line passing through the origin with negative slope
D
A parabola
16. The mode of cell division by which germ cells get half the amount of DNA as compared to non-reproductive cells is called ______.
A
Budding
B
Meiosis
C
Amitosis
D
Mitosis
17. In a purely resistive circuit, the electrical energy supplied by the battery is:
A
stored as magnetic energy
B
completely dissipated as heat
C
stored as potential energy
D
converted only into light
18. Mendel conducted his experiments on which plant?
A
Pea plant
B
Sunflower
C
Tomato
D
Bean plant
19. Plastic waste has increased a lot in a city over the last 10 years. Which habit of people is most likely causing this?
A
Plastic bags have been banned.
B
People are using more disposable items instead of long-lasting ones.
C
People are choosing reusable things.
D
More people are using buses and trains.
20. Which of the following statements correctly describes the process of budding in organisms like Hydra?
A
A bud forms only during sexual reproduction and fuses with the parent organism.
B
A bud forms from a broken body part and grows into a new organism.
C
A bud forms from specialised cells inside the organism and remains attached for life.
D
A bud forms as an outgrowth due to repeated cell division and detaches when mature.
21. Which of the following cell organelles help(s) in cellular reproduction?
A
Plastids
B
Endoplasmic Reticulum
C
Nucleus
D
Lysosomes
22. When particles of two different types of matter randomly mix due to the inherent random movement of particles, the process is called:
A
effusion
B
intermixing
C
homogenisation
D
diffusion
23. When calcium oxide reacts with water, the product formed is:
A
calcium carbonate
B
calcium chloride
C
calcium sulphate
D
calcium hydroxide
24. Which of the following is essential for the propagation of sound waves?
A
Medium
B
Vacuum
C
Light source
D
Magnet
25. What is the mode of the data 20, 21, 15, 16, 20, 17, 18, 16, 15, 14, 19, 20, 18, 14, and 20?
A
18
B
19
C
20
D
21
26. Two trains are moving in opposite directions at speeds of 130 km/hr and 60 km/hr, respectively. The length of one train is 360 m. The time taken by them to cross each other is 12 seconds. The length (in m) of the other train, correct to 2 decimal places, is: 3382
A
277.92
B
269.96
C
282.54
D
273.33
27. A shopkeeper marks his goods at X% above the cost price and sells them at a discount of 40%. If he makes a profit of 62%, find the value of X.
A
170
B
171
C
169
D
168
28. If A : B = 4 : 6 and B : C = 7 : 10, then A : B : C is:
A
14 : 23 : 40
B
14 : 12 : 30
C
14 : 21 : 30
D
14 : 31 : 21
29. Pipes A and B can fill 50% of a tank in 15 and 10 minutes, respectively. There is also an emptying pipe C attached to the tank. If all the three pipes are opened together, the tank is filled in 15 minutes. If the tank is two-third filled, then in how much time (in minutes) C alone will empty the tank completely?
A
20
B
60
C
30
D
40
30. The cost of a washing machine is 50% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the washing machine increases by 57% and that of the TV decreases by 74%, then what is the percentage change in the total cost of 6 washing machines and 2 TVs?
A
Decrease by 5%
B
Increase by 5.2%
C
Increase by 4.6%
D
Decrease by 1%
31. Find the largest number that divides 555, 703, 999 and 1147 leaving the same remainder in each case.
A
89
B
148
C
137
D
74
32. If the value of 13% of 16% of x is 59.28, then the value of x is: 6497
A
2760
B
2850
C
2580
D
2690
33. Given that C is the third proportional of 16 and B. If B is the sum of the first three even natural numbers, then find the value of C.
A
11.74
B
7.55
C
8.49
D
9.0
34. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 2, 6 and 12 days, respectively. How long (in days) will they take to do thrice the same work, working together?
A
4
B
5
C
12
D
8
35. In a college election, the valid votes for candidates X and Y were in the ratio 7 : 2. The college had 1800 registered voters, of which 20% did not cast their votes and 20% of the votes cast were declared invalid. What is the difference in the number of votes secured by candidates X and Y?
A
640
B
896
C
256
D
459
36. Quadrilateral ABCD has sides AB = 9 m, BC = 12 m, CD = 14 m and DA = 13 m, taken in order. If ∠ ABC = 90°, find the area (in m 2 ) of quadrilateral ABCD.
A
138
B
148
C
135
D
128
37. Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7% per annum, respectively. Vijay borrowed an amount of ₹4,80,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹) between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Vijay after 3 years.
A
49,900
B
50,400
C
51,400
D
51,900
38. The area of a trapezium is 54 sq.units. Its parallel sides are 3x + 1 units and 2x + 2 units, respectively. The distance between the parallel sides is 3y units and x − y = 1. Find the sum of parallel sides.
A
16 units
B
18 units
C
22 units
D
12 units
39. A father is 30 years older than his son. After 5 years, he will be twice as old as his son. Find the son's present age.
A
20 years
B
27 years
C
25 years
D
22 years
40. A 275-metre-long train crosses a platform thrice its length in 44 seconds. What is the speed of the train in km/hr? 3714
A
81
B
98
C
85
D
90
41. DMART is offering Buy 2, get 29 free on grocery items. What is the net percentage discount being offered by DMART? (Correct up to two decimal places)
A
97.4%
B
92.67%
C
93.55%
D
95.63%
42. A trader purchased a bundle of 15 notebooks for ₹1,200 and sold the entire bundle for ₹1,040. The loss incurred is equal to the cost price of how many notebooks?
A
3
B
4
C
2
D
1
43. The sum of the first 12 prime numbers is:
A
201
B
199
C
197
D
202
44. A number is divided into two parts, such that one part is 10 more than the other. If the two parts are in the ratio 5 : 3, find the two parts of the number.
A
24 and 14
B
26 and 16
C
27 and 17
D
25 and 15
45. Height (in 125 - 130 - 135 - 140 - 145 - 150 cm) 130 135 140 145 Number of 7 14 X 10 9 girls
A
10
B
12
C
15
D
11
46. Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, I, J and K, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the same order. Only A is kept above I. Only two boxes are kept between I and C. Only K is kept below J. D is not kept immediately above C. How many boxes are kept between B and K?
A
Four
B
Two
C
One
D
Three
47. Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two set of pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. QUT−XBA YCB−FJI 6436
A
IML−OTR
B
ILJ−OSR
C
ILJ−PTS
D
IML−PTS
48. SGHE is related to XCMA in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, CYRW is related to HUWS. To which of the following is MQBO related, following the same logic? 6418
A
SLGM
B
SNHL
C
QLFJ
D
RMGK
49. A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. A sits third to the left of X. Only one person sits between X and C when counted from the left of C. Only two people sit between B and W when counted from the right of W. D is an immediate neighbour of B. Who sits third to the right of Y?
A
D
B
W
C
A
D
C
50. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 223 ÷ 4 + 164 × 2 − 37 = ?
A
826
B
837
C
811
D
847
51. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
FC-HE
B
NK-PL
C
HE-JF
D
KH-MI
52. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 20 25 15 20 10 ?
A
5
B
20
C
15
D
25
53. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some mangoes are bananas. No banana is a kiwi. Conclusions: (I): All bananas are mangoes. (II): No mango is a kiwi.
A
Neither follows
B
Only I follows
C
Both follow
D
Only II follows
54. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 7 1 8 3 3 1 5 4 8 5 1 4 4 9 5 9 6 8 7 3 5 3 6 6 9 (Right) How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a perfect square and also immediately followed by a perfect square? (Note: 1 is also a perfect square.) 3344
A
One
B
Five
C
Four
D
Three
55. In a certain code language, ‘OVAL’ is coded as ‘9573’ and ‘LAVS’ is coded as ‘3657’. What is the code for ‘S’ in the given code language?
A
6
B
3
C
5
D
7
56. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 73 63 53 43 33 ?
A
24
B
22
C
23
D
21
57. A, B, C, E, F, P and Q are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. A sits fourth to the left of C. P sits fourth to the right of B. Only two people sit between C and B when counted from the left of C. E is not an immediate neighbour of P or B. F is not an immediate neighbour of P. Who sits third to the right of Q?
A
F
B
P
C
B
D
C
58. In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the daughter of B’, A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’, A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’ and A ÷ B means ‘ A is the father of B’. Based on the above, how is D related to J if ‘D + F − G ÷ H x J’?
A
Wife's mother's brother's daughter
B
Wife's mother's brother's wife
C
Wife's father's brother's daughter
D
Wife's father's brother's wife
59. Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? IDR GEO EFL CGI ?
A
AHF
B
AHE
C
BHE
D
BGF
60. Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, I, J and K, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the same order. Only two boxes are kept between A and C. Only B is kept above K. No box is kept below
A
D
B
K
C
C
D
A
61. Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the following series to make it logically complete? MP33 KN41 IL49 GJ57 ?
A
EG66
B
EH65
C
EG65
D
EH66
62. Refer to the number series given below and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Left) 8 3 5 8 4 7 3 3 4 9 9 1 8 5 4 9 2 6 4 7 2 5 1 2 1 4 6 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
A
5
B
4
C
3
D
2
63. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
MP-TN
B
SV-ZT
C
JM-QK
D
PS-WR
64. In a certain code language, ‘iron hip cheek’ is coded as ‘nn nu qw’ and ‘mud iron globe’ is coded as ‘nu yx mt’. How is ‘iron’ coded in the given language? 17253
A
nn
B
yx
C
nu
D
qw
65. Refer to the number series given below and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Left) 7 3 6 1 9 8 4 4 8 6 1 9 1 6 5 5 5 5 1 4 1 8 4 4 3 3 7 (Right) How many such even numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
2
66. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (5, 22, 26) (11, 40, 44)
A
(16, 66, 70)
B
(13, 32, 36)
C
(17, 58, 54)
D
(16, 55, 59)
67. YPMG is related to VKJB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, MVAM is related to JQXH. To which of the following options is DGRX related, following the same logic? 10113
A
ABPO
B
ABOS
C
APLO
D
ABOI
68. If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 51784563, then how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
A
Two
B
None
C
Three
D
One
69. Aman starts from Point M and drives 8 km towards the north. He then takes a left turn, drives 5 km, turns left and drives 13 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 5 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 16 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 10 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and in which direction is Point P with respect to Point M? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
A
11 km towards the north
B
3 km towards the north
C
9 km towards the south
D
6 km towards the south
70. Each of the digits in the number 3728645 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. What will be the sum of the digits that are second from the left and second from the right in the new number thus formed?
A
11
B
7
C
9
D
10
71. Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Left) 7 8 7 4 1 3 5 2 3 2 6 9 3 6 1 7 1 1 8 8 6 2 6 (Right) How many such odd digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
A
Four
B
Two
C
Three
D
One
72. A man starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards north. He then takes a right turn, drives 15 km, turns right and drives 18 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 23 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 9 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
A
7 km to the west
B
6 km to the south
C
8 km to the east
D
5 km to the north
73. P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. R sits on the immediate left of U. S sits second to the right of T. P sits second to the left of R. How many people sit between R and Q when counted from the right of R?
A
2
B
3
C
1
D
0
74. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? 10 20 31 43 56 ?
A
63
B
62
C
70
D
66
75. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All Zucchinis are Leeks. All Leeks are Radishes. Some Radishes are Celeries. Conclusions: (I) All Leeks are Celeries. (II) Some Radishes are Zucchinis.
A
Only conclusion (I) follows.
B
Only conclusion (II) follows.
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
D
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
76. What was India’s rank in the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI), 2024?
A
96th
B
93rd
C
85th
D
101st
77. Which Indian city was ranked the most polluted globally in the World Air Quality Report, 2024, released in March 2025?
A
Gurugram
B
Mumbai
C
Byrnihat
D
Delhi
78. In June 2025, West Bengal planned to make 800 km green wall along which of the following states, intercepting pollutants entering the State?
A
Mizoram
B
Assam
C
Jharkhand
D
Chhattisgarh
79. Who was appointed as the RBI Deputy Governor in April 2025, becoming one of the key figures in shaping India’s financial and monetary policy?
A
Poonam Gupta
B
Nirmala Sitharaman
C
Arundhati Bhattacharya
D
Shaktikanta Das
80. Which city in Madhya Pradesh hosted the foundation stone ceremony of India’s first PM MITRA Park, attended by Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
A
Bhopal
B
Indore
C
Gwalior
D
Dhar
81. In June 2025, Consumer Price Index (CPI) of India inflation for the financial year 2025-26 was projected at:
A
4.7%
B
5.7%
C
6.7%
D
3.7%
82. Who is the author of the book 'India: 5,000 Years of History on the Subcontinent', published in June 2025?
A
William Dalrymple
B
Patrick French
C
Audrey Truschke
D
John Zubrzycki As on November 2024, how many Khelo India Athletes received
83. coaching, equipment, medical care, and Out of Pocket Allowance (OPA)?
A
2000
B
3087
C
2781
D
2509
84. Who won the men’s singles title at the 2025 French Open, held in June 2025?
A
Novak Djokovic
B
Alexander Zverev
C
Jannik Sinner
D
Carlos Alcaraz
85. In June 2025, which educational institution signed an MoU with VRDE to collaborate on advanced defence technologies?
A
COEP Technological University,Pune
B
Rajasthan Technical University
C
National Institute of Technology, Warangal
D
Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru
86. For Athletics in 2025, what is the age eligibility range for boys' and girls' selection trials at SAI Chennai?
A
14 to 20 years
B
12 to 18 years
C
11 to 19 years
D
10 to 16 years
87. What is the main purpose of the 'Model Rules for Felling Trees in Agricultural Lands', released in 2025?
A
Increasing tax on agricultural produce
B
Easing business in agroforestry by streamlining rules
C
Banning agroforestry in rural areas
D
Promoting urban farming only
88. When did Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Navy conduct the successful flight-test of indigenously-developed Vertically-Launched Short- Range Surface-to-Air Missile (VLSRSAM) from the Integrated Test Range (ITR), Chandipur off the coast of Odisha?
A
January 2, 2025
B
July 16, 2025
C
May 20, 2025
D
March 26, 2025
89. In September 2025, the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change introduced which of the following to enhance environmental compliance and governance?
A
Environmental Sustainability and Compliance Rules, 2025
B
Green Business Certification Framework, 2025
C
Sustainable Practices and Audit Guidelines, 2025
D
Environment Audit Rules, 2025
90. In August 2025, NITI Aayog unveiled an innovative framework to evaluate and compare the advancement of States and Union Territories towards their Electric Mobility objectives named ________.
A
National E-Mobility Mission Plan Index
B
India Electric Mobility Index
C
Sustainable Transport Index
D
Electric Vehicle Advancement Index
91. Which of the following banks of India extended the operating hours of the call money market to 7 PM, from 1 July 2025?
A
Bandhan Bank
B
State Bank of India
C
Reserve Bank of India
D
Bank of Baroda
92. In June 2025, which two countries participated in Exercise SHAKTI, a biennial training engagement?
A
Sri Lanka and the Maldives
B
India and France
C
Nepal and Bhutan
D
Afghanistan and China
93. Against which country's wrestler did Antim Panghal win her bronze medal match at the Asian Wrestling Championships, 2025?
A
Kazakhstan
B
Japan
C
China
D
Chinese Taipei
94. Who received the Sahitya Akademi Translation Prize (awarded in March 2025) for translating Himanshi Joshi's Tere Liye into Punjabi as Tere Laee?
A
Suvash Satpathy
B
Anjan Sarma
C
Chandan Negi
D
Srinivas Murmu
95. Who authored 'Careless People: A Cautionary Tale of Power, Greed, and Lost Idealism', published in 2025?
A
Samantha Wynne-Williamson
B
Alexandra Winslow-Meyer
C
Sarah Wynn-Williams
D
Susannah Wynn-Wallace "
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