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Group D — Test 22
00:00
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01. At maturity, an organism breaks into smaller pieces, which grow into new individuals. What is this process called?
A
Fusion
B
Fission
C
Fragmentation
D
Budding
02. The generation of heat in a conductor due to electric current is known as:
A
electromagnetic induction
B
Ohm’s Law
C
electrolysis
D
Joule’s heating
03. Which substances are selectively reabsorbed in the nephron?
A
Glucose, amino acids, and water
B
Urea and carbon dioxide
C
Platelets and enzymes
D
Bile and hydrochloric acid
04. A train is moving along a straight track with a speed of 54 km/hr. It stops after traveling 150 m. The magnitude of its acceleration is:
A
1.5 m/s²
B
1 m/s²
C
2 m/s²
D
0.75 m/s²
05. Which of the following statements correctly explains the continuous movement of particles of matter?
A
Particles of matter move only in gases and not in solids or liquids.
B
Particles of matter are stationary unless force is applied.
C
Particles of matter are continuously moving due to their kinetic energy.
D
Particles of matter are too heavy to move.
06. A cyclist performing uniform circular motion throws an apple in his direction, the apple moves in a ____________.
A
circular path opposite to the cyclist
B
tangential path to the circular path at that point
C
circular path as the cyclist
D
straight line path opposite to the cyclist
07. Which of the following is secreted directly into the blood and carried to different parts of the body?
A
Saliva
B
Adrenaline
C
Pancreatic juice
D
Bile juice
08. Which of the following features is seen in every cell under a microscope?
A
Cell membrane
B
Lysosome
C
Mitochondria
D
Chromosome
09. A light is travelling from a denser medium A to a rarer medium B. What will be the unit of refractive index of medium B with respect to medium A?
A
No unit
B
(metre)−1
C
metre
D
(metre)2
10. A car driver uses a concave mirror as a shaving mirror at home. If his face is kept close to the mirror, how will the image formed be?
A
Real, inverted, and larger than the face
B
Virtual, erect, and diminished
C
Real, inverted, and smaller than the face
D
Virtual, erect, and magnified
11. Which of the following metals is most likely to be found in the free state in nature due to its low reactivity?
A
Iron
B
Zinc
C
Gold
D
Copper
12. Which of the following is the compound produced by the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime (Ca(OH)2)?
A
washing soda
B
common salt
C
bleaching soda
D
bleaching powder
13. According to Bohr’s model of the atom, electrons in an atom:
A
are stationary in the atom and emit energy when struck by photons
B
are embedded in a positively charged sphere like plums in a pudding
C
revolve around the nucleus in elliptical orbits and emit energy continuously
D
revolve in fixed circular orbits and do not radiate energy while in these orbits
14. Which of the following pairs of human male chromosome is mismatched in size?
A
Thirteenth pair autosomes
B
First pair autosomes
C
Twentieth pair autosomes
D
Sex chromosomes
15. The potential energy of a body depends on which of the following?
A
Mass only
B
Speed
C
Height only
D
Both mass and height
16. While cleaning the school campus, students are asked to separate biodegradable waste. Which of the following should be placed in the biodegradable bin?
A
Polythene bag
B
Wooden pencil shavings
C
A crushed cold drink can
D
Glass bottle
17. Which of the following is NOT present in animal cells?
A
Chloroplast
B
Plasma membrane
C
Nucleus
D
Cytoplasm
18. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A
Loudness depends on frequency
B
Soft sound has small amplitude
C
Loudness depends on amplitude
D
Loud sound has large amplitude
19. Which of the following is the common name for ethanol (C ₂ H ₅ OH)?
A
Ethyl alcohol
B
Isopropyl alcohol
C
Butyl alcohol
D
Methyl alcohol
20. An object is thrown vertically upwards with velocity u. Under the influence of gravity, the acceleration:
A
becomes zero at the highest point
B
acts in the direction of motion
C
increases the upward velocity
D
acts opposite to the direction of motion
21. Which of the following non-metals is found liquid at room temperature?
A
Bromine
B
Nitrogen
C
Iodine
D
Phosphorous
22. When the current in a circuit is doubled, keeping resistance constant, the power dissipated in the resistor becomes:
A
One-fourth
B
Four times
C
Half
D
Double
23. What is molecular mass of carbon dioxide?
A
42
B
22
C
44
D
38
24. What is the primary advantage of cross-pollination over self-pollination?
A
Does not depend on pollinating agents for producing progeny
B
Requires less energy input for generating the progeny
C
Produces progeny that is identical to parent
D
Introduces genetic variations, which improves chances of survival in progeny
25. What are the products formed when an acid reacts with a metal hydrogen carbonate?
A
Salt + Hydrogen gas
B
Base + Hydrogen gas
C
Salt + Oxygen + Carbon
D
Salt + Water + Carbon dioxide
26. An Uber auto covers a distance of 680 km in 17 hours. What is its speed in km/hr?
A
34
B
40
C
43
D
32
27. In an election between two candidates, 20% of the total votes were declared invalid. The winning candidate received 70% of the valid votes and won by a margin of 12,400 votes. Find the total number of registered voters.
A
11,625
B
27,125
C
38,750
D
38,000
28. The value of is:
A
1.28
B
0.128
C
128
D
12.8
29. The sides of a triangle are 75 cm, 44 cm, and 35 cm. What is the length of its altitude corresponding to the side with a length of 44 cm?
A
50 cm
B
21 cm
C
26 cm
D
45 cm
30. The sum of seven consecutive numbers is 168. What is the sum of the largest and the smallest numbers?
A
49
B
45
C
46
D
48
31. The average of the first 5 odd natural numbers is:
A
6
B
4
C
5
D
2.5
32. Aman and Yogita together invested ₹59,200 in a business. At the end of the year, out of a total profit of ₹8,000, Aman's share was ₹1,400. How much was Aman's investment?
A
₹10,360
B
₹11,385
C
₹8,610
D
₹11,915
33. The product of the present ages of Seema and Jyoti is 3,952 years, and their present age ratio is 19 : 13. Find the difference in the ages (in years) of Seema and Jyoti.
A
16
B
22
C
24
D
18
34. A credit card payment that will settle a bill for 383 mixers at ₹1,000 per mixer with successive discounts of 25% and 20% with a further discount of 13% on card payment is:
A
₹1,99,926
B
₹1,99,915
C
₹1,99,908
D
₹1,99,918
35. A cistern is normally filled in 12 hours but takes 2 hours longer to fill because of a leak in its bottom. If the cistern is full, then in how much time will the leak empty the tank? 6999
A
48 hours
B
120 hours
C
124 hours
D
84 hours
36. Find the HCF of 27, 54 and 108. 3133
A
27
B
54
C
9
D
18
37. Simplify 3 x 5 + 8 − 15 ÷ 3 − 12 + 72 ÷ 8 x 5 − 32.
A
28
B
19
C
72
D
45
38. Sohan purchased 25 dozens of toys at the rate of ₹480 per dozen. He sold each one of them at the rate of ₹45. What was his percentage profit?
A
10.5%
B
11.5%
C
12.5%
D
14.5%
39. If the mean proportional of A and 50 is 40, then find the value of A. 5769
A
32
B
31
C
30
D
33
40. Train P, going at the speed of 51 km/hr, completely passes Train Q of length 225 m, going in the same direction on parallel tracks, at 22 km/hr, in 7.5 minutes. How much time (in seconds) will P take to completely cross Train R of length 420 m, going at 21 km/hr in the opposite direction? 3388
A
191
B
193
C
196
D
181
41. The average age of 50 students in a class is 29 years. If the age of the teacher is also included, the average age of the whole group becomes 30 years. The age (in years) of the teacher is:
A
80
B
82
C
85
D
83
42. Consider two triangles, ABC and XYZ. In triangle ABC, the base is 21 cm and the other two sides are 17 cm and 10 cm, respectively. In triangle XYZ, the base is two-thirds the base of triangle ABC and has an altitude of 5 cm. Find the sum of the areas of triangles ABC and XYZ.
A
108 cm2
B
124.5 cm2
C
136.5 cm2
D
119 cm2
43. The income of Raman is ₹70,900. He saves 12% of his income. If his income increases by 39% and expenditure increases by 50%, then his savings will:
A
decrease by ₹3,545
B
increase by ₹3,548
C
decrease by ₹3,550
D
increase by ₹3,546
44. The areas of three adjacent faces of a solid cuboid are 108 cm 2 , 60 cm 2 and 45 cm 2 . What is the volume (in cm 3 ) of the cuboid?
A
540
B
686
C
296
D
332
45. Manoj got a new curtain at 20% discount. If Manoj did not get any discount, Manoj would have to pay ₹664 extra. So how much did Manoj pay for the curtain? 658
A
₹2,655
B
₹2,654
C
₹2,656
D
₹2,657
46. A, B, and C can do a piece of work in 3, 3, and 3 days respectively. How long (in days) will they take to do thrice the same work, working together?
A
9
B
3
C
4
D
6
47. A certain sum of money amounts to ₹7,040 in 2 years and ₹8,000 in 5 years on simple interest. Find the principal.
A
₹6,550
B
₹5,800
C
₹6,400
D
₹6,200
48. Select the pair that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. OPT−XYC DEI−MNR
A
CDH−KMP
B
CCF−KLP
C
CDH−LMQ
D
CCF−LMQ
49. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All shirts are trousers. All trousers are pants. No pant is a coat. Conclusion (I) : No shirt is a coat. Conclusion (II) : No trouser is a coat. 11662
A
Only II follows
B
Only I follows
C
Both follow
D
Neither follows
50. Mr. Akai starts from Point A and drives 12 km towards west. He then takes a left turn, drives 15 km, turns left and drives 20 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 28 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 8 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
A
13 km to the south
B
10 km to the east
C
15 km to the north
D
12 km to the north
51. If + means - , - means x , x means ÷ , ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 19 - 16 ÷ 128 + 32 x 4 = ?
A
413
B
433
C
424
D
429
52. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
LKO
B
DCG
C
VVY
D
TSW
53. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 2 4 12 48 ? 1440
A
240
B
422
C
420
D
224
54. Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 4 2 1 5 8 6 1 5 4 7 3 6 6 4 9 1 4 3 1 5 6 3 4 2 2 8 8 (Right) How many such even numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number? 15354
A
5
B
2
C
4
D
3
55. In a certain code language, ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ ‘A - B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’ ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’ ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’ Based on the above, how is P related to T if ‘P - Q ÷ R + S × T’?
A
Father’s sister
B
Sister
C
Father’s mother
D
Mother’s sister
56. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some cakes are samosas. All samosas are buns. Conclusions: (I): Some cakes are buns. (II): All buns are samosas.
A
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
B
Only conclusion (I) follows
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
D
Only conclusion (II) follows
57. A group of numbers/symbols is coded using letter codes as per the codes given below and the conditions that follow. Note: If none of the conditions apply, then the codes for the respective number/symbol are to be followed directly as given in the table. Conditions: (i) If the first element is a symbol and the last element a number, the codes for these two (the first and last elements) are to be interchanged. (ii) If both the second and third elements are multiples of 2, the third element is to be coded as the code for the second element. (iii) If the second element is an odd number and the last element a symbol, the second and last elements are to be coded as *. What will be the code for the following group? & 4 8 $ #
A
C Y Y R A
B
C P P R A
C
C * P R *
D
A Y P R C
58. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. D is the immediate neighbour of G and A. F sits second to the left of G. E is the immediate neighbour of C and A. How many people sit between C and B when counted from the left of B?
A
One
B
Four
C
Two
D
Three
59. Mr. Z starts from Point A and drives 17 km towards the South. He then takes a left turn, drives 18 km, then turns left and drives 41 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 27 km, then turns left and drives 15 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 7 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 9 km, and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
A
17 km to the west
B
16 km to the east
C
16 km to the west
D
17 km to the east
60. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
KP – ON
B
RD – VB
C
BM – FJ
D
QL – UJ
61. Select the pair that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. GHK−JKN TUX−WXA
A
QRU−TUX
B
QRU−SUW
C
QQS−TUX
D
QQS−STW
62. In a certain code language, ‘the chef cooks’ is coded as ‘ae tr ds’ and ‘she cooks food’ is coded as ‘fp qz tr’. How is ‘cooks’ coded in that language?
A
tr
B
qz
C
ds
D
ae
63. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? DRA111, NBK97, XLU83, HVE69, ?
A
RGO55
B
SFO55
C
RFO55
D
RFQ55
64. XYBX is related to WXAW in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, QRUQ is related to PQTP. To which of the given options is RSVR related, following the same logic?
A
QRUQ
B
QSTZ
C
QRTQ
D
QQTQ
65. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 551 214 483 409 581 (Right) (Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) (NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.) What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the third digit of the lowest number?
A
16
B
10
C
11
D
12
66. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-’ , what will come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation? 14 B 2 D 18 A 9 C 12 = ?
A
40
B
38
C
39
D
36
67. Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the following series to make it logically complete? DTM44, HQJ40, LNG36, ?
A
QJC33
B
QJD32
C
PKC34
D
PKD32
68. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 283 261 239 217 195 ?
A
180
B
173
C
165
D
169
69. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 6 C 8 B 8 A 32 D 1 = ?
A
9
B
8
C
4
D
7
70. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (2, 30, 15) (21, 189, 9)
A
(46, 969, 21)
B
(13, 263, 20)
C
(4, 40, 10)
D
(45, 543, 12)
71. Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, I, J and K, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the same order. K is kept second from the bottom. Only three boxes are kept between K and I. D is kept at one of the positions below K. Only B is kept between I and J. A is kept at one of the positions above I. How many boxes are kept between C and D?
A
Two
B
Four
C
One
D
Three
72. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Counting to be done from left to right only.) (Left) 1 3 5 8 5 5 5 4 8 9 4 2 8 9 7 6 7 6 3 5 8 5 7 2 5 6 8 (Right) How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
A
8
B
5
C
6
D
7
73. Refer to the number series given below and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Left) 3 7 2 4 2 8 2 5 3 2 9 4 5 5 9 6 5 3 3 4 6 3 3 5 3 6 9 (Right) How many such even numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
A
5
B
3
C
4
D
6
74. A, B, C, E, F, P and Q are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. F sits third to the left of C. Only one person sits between C and P when counted from the left of P. Only two people sit between B and E when counted from the right of E. A is an immediate neighbour of B. Who sits to the immediate left and right of Q, respectively?
A
C and P
B
F and A
C
P and B
D
P and C
75. In a row of 39 people facing north, Sangeeta is 14 th from the left end. If Meghana sits 11 th to the right of Sangeeta, then what is Meghana’s position from the right end of the row?
A
11
B
10
C
15
D
17
76. A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. A sits fourth to the left of Y. W sits fourth to the right of C. Only two people sit between Y and C when counted from the left of Y. X is not an immediate neighbour of W or Y. D is not an immediate neighbour of X. Who sits third to the right of B?
A
D
B
Y
C
A
D
C
77. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 5 6 10 19 35 60 ?
A
99
B
96
C
69
D
93
78. What scientific activity is NOT planned on Axiom‑4?
A
Testing crewed docking with a lunar base at Indian space station
B
Studying the effects of short spaceflights on joints and blood flow
C
Understanding the effects on blood stem cells during spaceflight
D
Examining microgravity's impact on the brain and cognitive risks
79. Which book, launched by Union Minister Dharmendra Pradhan at the World Book Fair 2025, is part of the PM YUVA 2.0 scheme?
A
Death of a Gentleman
B
Indian Renaissance: The Modi Decade
C
The Saga of Kudopali
D
The Elsewhereans
80. International Labour Day 2025 was celebrated globally on which of the following dates?
A
May 3
B
April 30
C
May 1
D
May 2
81. The Reserve Bank of India launched the PRAVAAH portal with effect from _________.
A
1 June 2025
B
1 May 2025
C
1 July 2025
D
1 April 2025
82. As of July 2025, what is the duration of the Revised Green India Mission (GIM) Plan released in 2025?
A
2022–2029
B
2020–2025
C
2025–2035
D
2021–2030
83. Which renowned personality received the 2025 Templeton Prize for promoting science and spirituality?
A
William Lane Craig
B
Ecumenical Patriarch Bartholomew
C
Francis Collins
D
Jean Vanier Patriarch Bartholomew
84. Which Indian captain won the IPL 2025 in his debut season as skipper?
A
Sai Sudharsan
B
Krunal Pandya
C
Rajat Patidar
D
Suryakumar Yadav
85. Which of the following was the main theme of the conference organised by the National Minorities Development and Finance Corporation in Mumbai in May 2025?
A
Entrepreneurship for Minorities
B
Innovation in Religious Institutions
C
Leadership Training for Minority Women
D
Financial Planning for Small Businesses
86. In 2025, which Ministry of Defence initiative aimed to modernise the armed forces in cyber, AI, and integrated command?
A
Make in India
B
Year of Reforms
C
Digital India in Defence
D
Operation Cold Start
87. Which of the following is a state-of-the-art infrastructure, disaster-resilient facility launched by the Government of India in June 2025 for strengthening disaster preparedness and response mechanisms?
A
Centralised Crisis Management Centre
B
National Disaster Coordination Hub
C
Advanced Disaster Response and Monitoring Facility
D
Integrated Control Room for Emergency Response
88. Which national team claimed their first-ever title at the 2025 IIHF Women’s Asia Cup?
A
Philippines
B
India
C
China
D
Japan
89. The Andhra Pradesh government rejected Telangana's demand for a 50 : 50 share of Krishna river water in January 2025. Currently, what is the water sharing ratio between Andhra Pradesh and Telangana?
A
55 : 45
B
70 : 30
C
66 : 34
D
60 : 40
90. Who won the Sportstar of the Year (Male) award at the Sportstar Aces Awards 2025?
A
PR Sreejesh
B
Virat Kohli
C
Rohit Sharma
D
Neeraj Chopra
91. Who authored the book Memories and Milestones, documenting 60 years of Blue Cross of India, launched in 2025?
A
Maneka Sanjay Gandhi and AL Somayaji
B
Lashman and Maneka Gandhi
C
Justice PN Prakash and V Sriram
D
V Sriram and Lashman
92. In October 2025, which state government launched the State Climate Action Tracker alongside district-level decarbonization action plans?
A
Gujarat
B
Meghalaya
C
Tamil Nadu
D
Kerala
93. The Defense Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) lab in which city has created an advanced polymeric membrane designed for high-pressure desalination of sea water in May 2025?
A
Pune
B
Bengaluru
C
Kanpur
D
Hyderabad
94. On 31 May 2025, which of the following banks of India waived the minimum balance requirement on all savings accounts?
A
Indian Bank
B
Canara Bank
C
Punjab National Bank
D
Bank of India
95. In April 2025, DRDO’s Defense Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL) unit had successfully completed a long-duration ground test of an advanced scramjet combustor in _________.
A
Ahmedabad
B
Lucknow
C
Bhopal
D
Hyderabad
96. In February 2025, which company partnered with Roche Diagnostics for a self-sampling HPV DNA test in India?
A
Apollo Hospitals
B
Fortis Healthcare
C
Metropolis Healthcare
D
Max Healthcare
97. Where was the 2025 Wimbledon tennis tournament held?
A
Paris, France
B
Melbourne, Australia
C
London, United Kingdom
D
New York, USA "
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