Home
📝 TNPSC
📊 Maths
🚆 RRB
💼 Jobs
📚 Notes
📄 Docs
🏆 Tournament
LIVE
👥 Groups
Login
Register Free
🎯 Quiz Universe
Login
✕
👤
Welcome!
Login to access all features
Free Platform
TNPSC Prep
Main Menu
🏠
Home
📝
TNPSC
📊
Maths Tests
⚡
Maths Practice
🚆
RRB Exams
💼
Job Alerts
📚
Study Notes
📄
Documents
📋
OMR Tests
🏆
Tournament
LIVE
🥇
Leaderboard
👥
Study Groups
Account
🔐
Login
✏️
Register Free
Info
❓
Help & Support
NEW
ℹ️
About Us
📬
Contact Us
🔒
Privacy Policy
📋
Terms & Conditions
⚠️
Disclaimer
Group D — Test 3
00:00
1
📋 Questions
✕
Answered
Current
Unanswered
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
01. What happens when a naphthalene ball is burnt in a metal plate in open space?
A
It burns with a blue flame.
B
It burns with a blue flame with black soot deposited on the metal plate.
C
It burns with a yellow flame with black soot deposited on the metal plate.
D
It burns with yellow flame with no deposit on the metal plate.
02. Which of the following metals is extracted in the middle of the activity series?
A
Potassium
B
Gold
C
Sodium
D
Iron
03. Which of the following statements is correct?
A
Work done does not depend on force or displacement.
B
Work done can only be positive.
C
Work done can only be negative.
D
Work done can be positive or negative depending on the direction of force.
04. Which poultry are birds farmed to produce eggs?
A
Layers
B
Common carp
C
Broilers
D
Milch
05. Which of the following plant tissue performs photosynthesis?
A
Phloem
B
Sclerenchyma
C
Xylem
D
Chlorenchyma
06. What happens when a zinc rod is placed in aqueous copper sulphate solution?
A
The temperature of the solution falls.
B
No chemical change observed.
C
Heat is required to start the reaction.
D
The blue colour of the copper sulphate solution fades.
07. When water and nutrients are available, algae grow and multiply rapidly by the process of _________.
A
pollination
B
spore formation
C
fragmentation
D
budding
08. A coil has a resistance of 44 Ω . If it is connected across a 220 V supply, what is the power consumed by the coil?
A
0.2 W
B
5 W
C
110 W
D
1100 W
09. Statement 1: The potential difference is measured in volts. Statement 2: One volt is equal to one newton per coulomb. Which of the following is true?
A
Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
B
Only Statement 1 is correct.
C
Only Statement 2 is correct.
D
Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
10. Which of the following options best describes the term Culture Fishery?
A
Capturing fishes from artificial resources
B
Catching fishes from marine water
C
Farming of the fishes
D
Capturing fishes from natural resources
11. Which of the following is NOT used for expressing the concentration of a solution?
A
Volume by Volume percentage of a solution
B
Mass by mass percentage of a solution
C
Volume by Mass percentage of a solution
D
Mass by volume percentage of a solution
12. Through which method of cell division are the diploid chromosomes divided into haploid gametes?
A
Amitosis
B
Binary Fission
C
Mitosis
D
Meiosis
13. What is the main role of micelles in the cleansing action of soap?
A
To reduce the hardness of water
B
To trap and remove oil and dirt from clothes
C
To produce lather with water
D
To increase the surface tension of water
14. The power of a lens is defined as:
A
The reciprocal of its focal length in meters
B
The product of its focal length and refractive index
C
The square of its focal length
D
The ratio of image distance to object distance
15. A body is dropped from a height. If it falls for 3.0 s and g = 10 m/s 2 , its final velocity (v) is ______________.
A
40 m/s
B
30 m/s
C
20 m/s
D
10 m/s
16. The fractional atomic mass of chlorine is due to which of the following?
A
Presence of isotopes
B
Its compound nature
C
Experimental error
D
Presence of ions
17. During reproduction, why is it important to create DNA copies?
A
For blood circulation
B
For inheritance of traits
C
For respiration
D
For digestion
18. The frequency of a sound wave is 50 Hz. How much time will it take to complete one wave?
A
0.2 s
B
5 s
C
0.02 s
D
50 s
19. Which of the following statements best explains the Law of Constant Proportions?
A
Mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.
B
A chemical compound always contains the same elements in the same proportion by mass.
C
Atoms can be divided into smaller particles during a reaction.
D
Elements are always found in random ratios in a compound.
20. The motion of a satellite orbiting the Earth in a circular path at constant speed is a classic example of uniform circular motion. What property of this motion prevents its acceleration from being zero?
A
The speed is too high for the gravitational force to sustain a constant velocity.
B
The total mechanical energy is conserved, necessitating acceleration.
C
The object`s mass continually changes due to orbital dynamics.
D
The direction of motion changes continuously at every point, meaning the velocity is changing.
21. Which of the following describes an example of uniform circular motion?
A
A train moving on its track
B
A car accelerating on its way
C
A fan blade rotating at constant speed
D
A ball thrown vertically upwards
22. Asthma primarily affects which part of the respiratory system?
A
Alveoli
B
Diaphragm
C
Bronchi and bronchioles
D
Trachea
23. When a thick glass slab is placed over printed matter, the letters appear raised. This is due to ___________.
A
Refraction of light
B
Scattering of light
C
Total internal reflection
D
Polarization of light
24. Which of the following life processes is important to bring variation in species?
A
Transportation
B
Heterotrophic nutrition
C
Sexual reproduction
D
Autotrophic nutrition
25. The functional group which does NOT contain oxygen hetero atom is:
A
carboxylic acid
B
ketone
C
alcohol
D
halo alkane
26. In statistics out of 100, the marks of 21 students in final exams are as 90, 95, 95, 94, 90, 85, 84, 83, 85, 81, 92, 93, 82, 78, 79, 81, 80, 82, 85, 76, 85, then the mode of data is:
A
85
B
87
C
84
D
83
27. A and B working together can do a piece of work in 6 days. B alone can do the same work in 12 days. How long (in days) will A alone take to do double the work?
A
27
B
24
C
12
D
25
28. The cost of a washing machine is 40% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the washing machine increases by 52% and that of the TV decreases by 76%, then what is the percentage change in the total cost of 5 washing machines and 2 TVs?
A
Decrease by 3%
B
Decrease by 2%
C
Increase by 0.8%
D
Increase by 5%
29. The vertices of a convex pentagon (in order) are P(0,0), Q(6,0), R(8,3), S(4,7), T(0,4). Find the area of the pentagon.
A
45 sq. units
B
39 sq. units
C
42 sq. units
D
36 sq. units
30. Which of the following ratios is equivalent to 3 : 2?
A
51 : 37
B
53 : 38
C
54 : 36
D
52 : 34
31. If p = 6, q = −3, then the value of p 3 – 3p 2 + 3p + 3q + 3q 2 + q 3 is:
A
–117
B
117
C
61
D
–61
32. Smriti goes to a shopping mall at a speed of 21 km/hr and returns at a speed of 69 km/hr. Find her average speed (in km/hr) for the entire trip.
A
40.2
B
32.2
C
23.4
D
30.3
33. A fruit vendor bought 150 mangoes. He sold them at such a price that the selling price of 120 mangoes equals the cost price of 150 mangoes. Find his profit percentage.
A
30%
B
25%
C
20%
D
35%
34. The total surface area of a solid right circular cylinder is 542 cm 2 . Its curved surface area is two-fifth of its total surface area. Find the curved surface area of the cylinder.
A
315.4 cm2
B
212.5 cm2
C
216.8 cm2
D
513.2 cm2
35. The average age of 26 students of a class is 26 years. If the age of the teacher is also included, the average age of the whole group becomes 27 years. The age (in years) of the teacher is:
A
50
B
57
C
54
D
53
36. A 325 m long train overtakes a man moving at a speed of 5 km/hr (in the same direction) in 45 seconds. How much time (in seconds) will it take this train to completely cross another 440 m long train, moving in the opposite direction at a speed of 20 km/hr?
A
54
B
51
C
52
D
40
37. Two numbers have an HCF of 18 and an LCM of 1512. If one of the numbers is 126, find the positive difference between these number.
A
90
B
216
C
256
D
126
38. An article was bought for ₹8,900. Its price was marked up by 40%. Thereafter, it was sold at a discount of 5% on the marked price. What was the profit percentage on the transaction?
A
32%
B
35%
C
33%
D
34%
39. P is any point inside the rectangle ABCD. If PA = 98 cm, PB = 91 cm and PC = 21 cm, then the length of PD (in cm) is equal to:
A
38
B
46
C
42
D
41
40. 5480
A
1
B
0.35
C
0
D
0.25
41. A metal rod is divided into three parts, A, B and C. The lengths of A and B are in the ratio 9 : 20, and the lengths of C and B are in the ratio 5 : 11. If the difference between the lengths of A and C is 10 cm, find the total length (in cm) of the metal rod.
A
4202
B
4190
C
4180
D
4199
42. The amount on a sum of ₹6,800 at 15% per annum compound interest, compounded annually, in 2 years' time, will be:
A
₹7,996
B
₹8,993
C
₹9,393
D
₹8,641
43. If 20% of a number is added to 90, then the result is the same number. 80% of the same number is:
A
120
B
110
C
100
D
90
44. Soniya got married 15 years ago. Her present age is 8/5 times her age at the time of her marriage. Her sister was 8 years younger to her at the time of her marriage. Find the present age of her sister.
A
28 years
B
24 years
C
40 years
D
32 years
45. Two-fifth of a container is filled with blue liquid, one-third of the remaining container is filled with black liquid, five-sixth of the still remaining container is filled with yellow liquid and the remaining 4.2 litres is of white colour. Find the total capacity of the container.
A
72 litres
B
63 litres
C
60 litres
D
78 litres
46. A scheme like ‘Buy 6, Get 4 Free’ on the same kind of articles with the same MRP attracts a _____ % discount.
A
66.67
B
67.67
C
40
D
41
47. Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement(s). Statements: Some hats are caps. No cap is a vest. Conclusions: (I) Some hats are vests. (II) Some caps are hats.
A
Only conclusion (I) follows.
B
Only conclusion (II) follows.
C
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
D
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
48. Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only five people sit to the right of A. Only five people sit to the left of B. F is the immediate neighbour of G and E. C sits second to the left of E. How many people sit to the left of G?
A
Two
B
Four
C
One
D
Three
49. If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 84 − 6 ÷ 371 + 648 × 8 = ?
A
799
B
795
C
797
D
794
50. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will be come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following equation? 15 A 3 B 10 C 8 D 12 = ?
A
44
B
46
C
45
D
47
51. Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) 8 $ 3 Ω 9 % 4 6 7 1 * £ 5 # 2 + @ & (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by another symbol?
A
2
B
1
C
4
D
3
52. Madhur ranked 58 th from the top and 6 th from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in his class?
A
64
B
62
C
63
D
61
53. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 61 85 109 133 157 ?
A
185
B
179
C
181
D
183
54. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 991 989 985 979 971 ?
A
961
B
969
C
963
D
967
55. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 6 5 8 8 5 4 7 7 4 2 7 9 2 2 5 7 4 8 8 2 1 8 9 (Right) How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
A
Three
B
None
C
Two
D
One
56. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Counting to be done from left to right only.) (Left) 2 8 2 3 2 7 9 3 5 4 6 8 9 4 4 7 8 7 5 4 3 5 5 6 2 9 8 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
A
6
B
3
C
5
D
4
57. Ajay starts from Point A and drives 16 km towards the west. He then takes a right turn, drives 8 km, then turns left and drives 7 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 8 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km, and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degrees turns only, unless specified.)
A
25 km towards east
B
11 km towards west
C
16 km towards east
D
7 km towards north
58. Alex starts from Point A and drives 8 km towards the east. He then takes a left turn, drives 6 km, turns left and drives 17 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 13 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 9 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only, unless specified.)
A
8 km to the north
B
8 km to the south
C
7 km to the north
D
7 km to the south
59. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? HBE22 ICF29 JDG36 KEH43 ?
A
LFI50
B
LFJ51
C
LFJ50
D
LFI51
60. UI 12 is related to YK -2 in a certain way. In the same way, OL 9 is related to SN -5. To which of the following is PQ 15 related, following the same logic?
A
TS 1
B
SS 1
C
ST 3
D
TT 3
61. O, P, Q, R, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line, facing north. Only two people sit to the left of P. Only three people sit between P and W. Only one person sits between W and X. R sits to the immediate left of O. Y is not an immediate neighbour of W. How many people sit to the right of Q?
A
Three
B
Four
C
One
D
Two
62. Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement(s). Statements: Some pizzas are cupcakes. All buns are cupcakes. Conclusions: (I) Some pizzas are buns. (II) All cupcakes are buns.
A
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
B
Only conclusion (I) follows.
C
Only conclusion (II) follows.
D
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
63. If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 173 − 3 ÷ 282 + 164 × 4 = ?
A
766
B
760
C
769
D
761
64. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
LPJ
B
NRL
C
GKE
D
OSN
65. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (14 , 42, 3) (12, 60, 5) 552
A
(13 , 39 , 3)
B
(15, 45, 4)
C
(11, 55, 6)
D
(16, 42, 2)
66. In a certain code language, ‘house sip head’ is coded as ‘bm ma px’ and ‘head wood robot’ is coded as ‘pz bm ey’. How is ‘head’ coded in the given language? 17255
A
pz
B
px
C
ma
D
bm
67. RR 4 is related to UQ −14 in a certain way. In the same way, II 8 is related to LH −10. To which of the given options is MO 12 related, following the same logic?
A
NH 9
B
HY −5
C
PN −6
D
GT −2
68. Seven people B, C, D, I, J, K and L are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only two people sit to the right of C. Only two people sit between C and B. Only two people sit between D and K. Only three people sits between C and D. J sits to the immediate right of I. How many people sit(s) to the right of L? 7076
A
Four
B
One
C
Three
D
Two
69. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. URIC - CRUI - RIUC KIDS - SIKD - IDKS
A
MALE - AMLE - EALM
B
FADE - EAFD - ADFE
C
OPEN - OEPN - NEPO
D
NAVY - YANV - VANY
70. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. All numbers are single-digit numbers only. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 4 6 5 8 2 2 1 8 2 9 8 4 7 4 8 2 4 3 1 4 1 2 7 2 6 (Right) How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a perfect square and also immediately followed by a perfect square? (Note: 1 is also a perfect square.)
A
Two
B
Three
C
One
D
Four
71. In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’, A @ B means ‘A is the brother of B’, A - B means ‘A is the wife of B’, and A # B means ‘A is the father of B’. How is O related to V if ‘O + P # T @ G - V’?
A
Wife's sister
B
Wife's mother
C
Wife's father's sister
D
Wife's father's mother
72. Radhika ranked 21 st from the top and 7 th from the bottom in her class. How many students are there in the class?
A
28
B
27
C
20
D
19
73. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 616 610 612 606 608 ?
A
603
B
601
C
602
D
604
74. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series, based on the English alphabetical order? RJV QIU PHT OGS ?
A
NHT
B
PFR
C
NFR
D
PHT
75. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
IHF
B
UTR
C
NMK
D
ZZW
76. In a certain code language, ‘OVAL’ is coded as ‘5294’ and ‘LOVE’ is coded as ‘8549’. What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language? 1632
A
4
B
5
C
9
D
8
77. In 2025, which city in Maharashtra has achieved 100% segregation, collection and processing of sanitary and biomedical waste, handling an average of 300 to 350 kg of sanitary waste daily?
A
Nasik
B
Nagpur
C
Karad
D
Pune
78. Which Indian Ministry launched the Bharat Forecasting System (BFS) on 26 May 2025 to provide weather predictions with a 6-km resolution?
A
Ministry of Earth Sciences
B
Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
C
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
D
Ministry of Defence
79. Which of the following new digital facilities was launched in May 2025 by the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment during the ‘Ageing with Dignity’ event?
A
Senior Citizens Welfare Portal
B
Digital Life Certificate Platform
C
One-Stop Senior Citizens Services Portal
D
Employment Exchange Portal for Senior Citizens
80. As announced by the Government of India, as on 7 July 2025, how many biotech startups does India have, compared to just 50 a decade ago?
A
Nearly 11,000
B
8050
C
Nearly 9000
D
7000
81. As reported in May 2025, the study by Climate Trends, a Delhi-based research consultancy, examined NASA satellite data of the Himalayan glaciers from 2000-2023 to evaluate the impact of which of the following on Himalayan snow?
A
Sulfate Aerosols
B
Mineral Dust Particles
C
Ozone
D
Black Carbon
82. Where did the chemical factory blast occur on 30 June 2025?
A
Vijayawada
B
Nizamabad
C
Sangareddy
D
Warangal
83. Which startup was selected in April 2025 to build India’s first sovereign Indic LLM under the IndiaAI Mission?
A
Wadhwani AI
B
Sarvam AI
C
AI4 Bharat
D
People+AI
84. Which of the following shifted its Andhra Pradesh regional office to Vijayawada, inaugurating the new premises on 16 June 2025?
A
Bank of Baroda
B
Reserve Bank of India
C
Securities and Exchange Board of India
D
Life Insurance Corporation of India
85. What was the theme of the 78 th World Health Assembly, 2025, held in Geneva in May 2025?
A
Universal Health Coverage: A Global Need
B
One World for Health
C
Health for All: Building Resilient Systems
D
Advancing Equity in Global Health
86. Which of the following documentaries did the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launch to explain its functions to the public in June 2025?
A
Financial Literacy A2Z
B
RBI: Money Simplified
C
My RBI Story
D
RBI Unlocked: Beyond the Rupee
87. Which chess player, besides Gukesh, received the Arjuna Award in 2025?
A
Koneru Humpy
B
Pentala Harikrishna
C
Harika Dronavalli
D
Vantika Agrawal
88. India won the ICC Women’s U19 T20 World Cup 2025 by defeating which country in the final?
A
England
B
South Africa
C
Sri Lanka
D
Australia
89. On 16 May 2025, the Supreme Court invalidated the Indian Government's orders passed in which years, allowing ex-post facto environmental clearances?
A
2009 and 2015
B
2012 and 2014
C
2006 and 2011
D
2017 and 2021
90. Which sport had the most Arjuna Award recipients in January 2025?
A
Para-Athletics
B
Athletics
C
Hockey
D
Shooting
91. The National Conference on Good Governance, organised by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) was held in which of the following places in January 2025?
A
Jaipur
B
Varanasi
C
Bhopal
D
Gandhinagar
92. On 24 May 2025, the order of which High Court was overturned by the Supreme Court and ruled that denying maternity leave for a third child violates a woman's constitutional right, reinforcing her dignity and reproductive freedom?
A
Hyderabad High Court
B
Allahabad High Court
C
Madras High Court
D
Bombay High Court
93. India set a new Guinness World Record in 2025 for the largest human formation of which of the following symbols?
A
Ashoka Chakra
B
Peace symbol
C
Olympic rings
D
Heart shape
94. Which of the following awards recognises children’s book writers from 22 languages?
A
Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar
B
Sahitya Ratna
C
Padma Shri
D
Bal Sahitya Puraskar
95. Who authored the book 'Test Cricket: A History', released in 2025?
A
Tim Wigmore
B
Gideon Haigh
C
Ramachandra Guha
D
Michael Atherton
96. Which state became the third Indian state to be recognised as fully functionally literate, under the ULLAS – New India Literacy Programme, in June 2025?
A
Assam
B
Tripura
C
Telangana
D
Karnataka "
0
Done
96
Left
96
Total
Submit Test
✅
Submit Test?
Once submitted you cannot change your answers.
0
Answered
0
Skipped
96
Total
Review
Submit Now
Home
TNPSC
Contest
RRB
Tests
Login
🔒
Login required
Please login to access the test series and start attempting tests.
🔐 Login & Continue
Maybe later