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Group D — Test 20
00:00
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01. Which of the following expressions is representing the correct lens formula?
A
1/v – 1/u = 1/f
B
1/v – 1/u = f
C
1/v + 1/u = 1/f
D
1/v + 1/u = f
02. Which of the following statements are correct about molecular mass? Statement 1: The molecular mass of a substance is the sum of the atomic masses of all the atoms in a molecule of the substance. Statement 2: It is also known as the relative mass of a molecule. Statement 3: It is expressed in atomic mass units (u).
A
Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
B
Only Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
C
Only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
D
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
03. What is the IUPAC name for an organic compound with two carbon atoms and a hydroxyl (−OH) functional group?
A
Ethanol
B
Ethanoic acid
C
Methanal
D
Propanone
04. Which of the following reproductive method will generate greater diversity in population?
A
Fragmentation
B
Binary fission
C
Budding
D
Sexual reproduction
05. The nature of the bond formed in aliphatic carbon compounds is:
A
coordinate
B
covalent
C
ionic
D
hydrogen
06. An electric bulb is rated 110 Watt – 220 Volt. The current drawn by the bulb is:
A
20 A
B
2 A
C
24,200 A
D
0.5 A
07. Which of the following methods is an example of asexual reproduction in plants?
A
Vegetative propagation
B
Germination
C
Pollination
D
Fertilisation
08. When an empty plastic bottle with an airtight stopper is pushed deeper into a bucket of water, the increasing upward force that resists the downward push is known as ___________.
A
surface tension
B
buoyant force (or upthrust)
C
gravitational force
D
atmospheric pressure
09. Why is the plasma membrane called selectively permeable?
A
It allows all substances to pass freely.
B
It allows only certain substances to pass in or out.
C
It dissolves unwanted materials.
D
It blocks all substances from entering.
10. If the direction of current in a conductor is reversed, the direction of force on it will:
A
reverse
B
remain the same
C
double
D
become zero
11. Why do we experience muscle cramps after heavy exercise?
A
Because blood flow completely stops during exercise
B
Due to accumulation of lactic acid
C
Due to a decrease in body temperature
D
Because muscles stop contracting
12. A 1000 kg car moving at 10 m/s is brought to rest by a constant braking force in 5 s. What is the magnitude of the force?
A
1500 N
B
2500 N
C
2000 N
D
3000N
13. Read the given Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and select the correct option. (A): Mendel chose pea plants for his experiments because they were easy to grow and showed distinct contrasting traits. (R): Pea plants reproduce asexually, allowing Mendel to control crosses easily.
A
A is false, but R is true
B
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C
A is true, but R is false
D
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
14. If an object moves from point A to point B (50 m east) and returns to point A in 10 seconds, its average velocity is:
A
–10 m/s
B
5 m/s
C
10 m/s
D
0 m/s
15. Which of the following observations could NOT be explained by Rutherford’s model of the atom?
A
The presence of a positively charged nucleus in the atom
B
The deflection of alpha particles at large angles
C
The stability of the atom despite the presence of accelerating electrons
D
The distribution of electrons around the nucleus
16. Providing water to crops at optimal times during their growth cycle directly contributes to what outcome?
A
Increased vulnerability to pests
B
Higher expected yields
C
Delayed maturation
D
Decreased nutrient uptake
17. When dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium hydrogencarbonate, which of the following observations is correct?
A
Formation of brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide
B
Formation of hydrogen gas with a pop sound
C
Rapid evolution of a colourless gas that turns lime water milky
D
Formation of a salt and water only
18. If the speed of a wave is 300 m/s and its wavelength is 0.75 m, the frequency of the wave is _________.
A
400 Hz
B
225 Hz
C
75 Hz
D
300 Hz
19. Which of the following is NOT a method of irrigation?
A
Canals
B
Wells
C
River lift systems
D
Check dams
20. A man lifts a stone of mass 22 kg through a vertical height of 4 m. Calculate the work done. (Take g = 10 m/s²)
A
880 J
B
55 J
C
220 J
D
400 J
21. Suspensions are different from solutions because:
A
Their particles do not settle on standing
B
They are transparent
C
Their solute is fully dissolved
D
They can be seen by naked eyes
22. The gas released on the reaction of metal carbonate with hydrochloric acid turns lime water milky. The released gas is:
A
Carbon dioxide
B
Chlorine
C
Carbon monoxide
D
Hydrogen
23. A concave mirror forms an image at a distance of 20 cm when an object is placed 10 cm in front of it. What is the focal length of this mirror?
A
40 cm
B
20 cm
C
30 cm
D
10 cm
24. Detergents can work in which of the following?
A
Only hot water
B
Only soft water
C
Both hard and soft water
D
Only distilled water
25. Which statement correctly represents the location of the meristematic tissue in a plant body?
A
All over the plant body
B
At the tips of the leaves
C
At the base of the stem
D
At some specific regions
26. The perimeter of a rectangle is 54 cm. Its length is 3 cm more than twice the breadth. Find the breadth.
A
9 cm
B
10 cm
C
8 cm
D
6 cm
27. One pipe can fill a tank in 9 minutes while another pipe can empty the completely filled tank in 36 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how many minutes will it take to fill one-half of the tank?
A
7
B
12
C
13
D
6
28. Divide ₹8,118 between Ravina and Sarita in the ratio 3 : 15, then find the share of Sarita. 5293
A
₹6,765
B
₹6,763
C
₹6,768
D
₹6,767
29. After selling an article at a discount of 44%, the profit percentage obtained is 12%. What is the markup percentage?
A
102%
B
97%
C
100%
D
101%
30. A can complete a piece of work in 90 days. B is 75% less efficient than A. C is 80% more efficient than B. If B and C work together for 30 days, A alone will complete the remaining work in:
A
69 days
B
73 days
C
68 days
D
71 days
31. Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7.5% per annum, respectively. Chetan borrowed an amount of ₹2,00,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹) between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Chetan after 3 years.
A
23,500
B
25,000
C
25,500
D
24,000
32. A typist takes 40 minutes to type 2 pages. How long (in minutes) will he take to type 87 pages? 2688
A
1745
B
1750
C
1730
D
1740
33. A garrison of 1200 men has provisions for 12 days. How long (in days) will the provisions last if the garrison be increased by 600 men?
A
18
B
28
C
8
D
3
34. The sides of a triangle are 85 cm, 13 cm, and 84 cm. What is the length of its altitude corresponding to the side with a length of 13 cm?
A
126 cm
B
55 cm
C
101 cm
D
84 cm
35. By selling 20 pens for the cost price of 25 pens, what is the profit percentage?
A
28%
B
25%
C
35%
D
20%
36. If 20% of a number is added to 96, then the result is the same number. 70% of the same number is:
A
114
B
84
C
94
D
104
37. Bharat buys a gold ring for his mother. The ring is marked at ₹96,000 and is offered with two successive discounts of 25% and Q%, respectively. After receiving both discounts, he pays ₹18,000. Find the value of Q.
A
77
B
74
C
75
D
76
38.
A
45 cm
B
40 cm
C
39 cm
D
53 cm
39. The cost of a washing machine is 16% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the washing machine increases by 80% and that of the TV decreases by 44%, then what is the percentage change in the total cost of 5 washing machines and 2 TVs?
A
Increase by 40%
B
Increase by 43%
C
Decrease by 38%
D
Decrease by 37%
40. If a 2622 m long train crosses a pole in 57 seconds, then find the time (in seconds) taken by the train to cross a 736 m long platform.
A
74
B
63
C
83
D
73
41. The arithmetic mean of the observations 53, 63, 79, 40, 34, 88, 34, 25 and 25 is:
A
50
B
42
C
49
D
44
42. Akshat and Neha together invested ₹57,000 in a business. At the end of the year, out of a total profit of ₹8,000, Akshat's share was ₹2,200. How much was Akshat's investment?
A
₹15,675
B
₹15,355
C
₹16,645
D
₹17,445
43. If a – b = 6 and ab = 135, then find a possible value of (a + b).
A
26
B
23
C
24
D
27
44. A solid metallic sphere of radius 9 cm is melted and recast into smaller spherical balls, each of radius 3 cm. Find the number of such small balls formed.
A
24
B
27
C
21
D
32
45. A train overtakes two persons walking along a railway track. The first person walks at 10.8 km/hr, and the second person walks at 21.6 km/hr. The train takes 15 seconds and 20 seconds, respectively, to completely pass them. What is the speed of the train if both persons are walking in the same direction as the train?
A
50 km/hr
B
54 km/hr
C
45 km/hr
D
64 km/hr
46. The present age of Mohan is three times the age of his son Rakesh. Four years ago from now, Mohan’s age was four times his son’s age at that time. What will be Rakesh’s age (in years) after 7 years from now?
A
36
B
12
C
19
D
20
47. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All kiwis are bananas. All bananas are mangoes. Conclusions: (I): All kiwis are mangoes. (II): Some mangoes are bananas.
A
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
B
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
C
Only conclusion (I) follows
D
Only conclusion (II) follows
48. Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement(s). Statements: All cats are mammals. No mammals are pets. Conclusions: (I) Some pets are cats. (II) No cat is pet.
A
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
B
Only conclusion (I) follows.
C
Only conclusion (II) follows.
D
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
49. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 50 C 30 B 4 A 12 D 27 = ? 3843
A
36
B
34
C
35
D
33
50. Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. No box is kept above D. Only three boxes are kept between D and F. Only one box is kept between G and E. E is kept immediately above F. Only four boxes are kept between G and
A
5
B
4
C
2
D
3
51. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) * + 9 \ / ? > @ 5 5 / ? / 9 * 1 ? # + 6 # (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a number?
A
Two
B
Three
C
None
D
One
52. Sarita starts from Point A and drives 8 km towards the west. She then takes a left turn, drives 5 km, turns left and drives 5 km. She then takes a right turn and drives 6 km. She takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should she drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified.)
A
11 km towards the north
B
8 km towards the south
C
16 km towards the west
D
5 km towards the east
53. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? CUM150, MEW136, WOG122, GYQ108, ?
A
QIA94
B
QIB94
C
OIA94
D
QCA94
54. GKNE is related to KHRB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, OEVY is related to SBZV. To which of the given options is WYDS related, following the same logic?
A
ZWIQ
B
BUGQ
C
AVHP
D
BVIO
55. In a certain code language, ‘STAR’ is coded as ‘3451’ and ‘RATE’ is coded as ‘4375’. What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language? 8992
A
3
B
5
C
7
D
4
56. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster that does NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their positions in the letter-cluster.)
A
XAD
B
ILO
C
CGI
D
JMP
57. What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘ ÷ ‘ are interchanged and ‘ - ’ and ‘ x ’ are interchanged? 168 + 42 x 14 - 9 ÷ 207 = ?
A
81
B
72
C
85
D
77
58. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. Only two people sit between F and B when counted from the right of F. Only two people sit between B and A when counted from the right of B. Only three people sit between F and E when counted from the right of F. D sits to the immediate left of C. How many people sit between F and G when counted from the left of F?
A
1
B
3
C
4
D
2
59. YPMW is related to CLPT in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, GHSQ is related to KDVN. To which of the given options is OZYK related, following the same logic?
A
RWAI
B
SVBH
C
UWCH
D
TVAG
60. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (17, 34, 2) (13, 39, 3)
A
(15, 25, 2)
B
(11, 55, 3)
C
(14, 42, 4)
D
(12 , 60 , 5)
61. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 27 51 77 105 135 ?
A
162
B
167
C
163
D
170
62. Mr. Akai starts from Point A and drives 2 km towards south. He then takes a right turn, drives 12 km, turns right and drives 21 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 23 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 19 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
A
7 km to the west
B
11 km to the west
C
7 km to the east
D
11 km to the north
63. In a certain code language, ‘bring hot food’ is coded as ‘cf tk rg’ and ‘food is good’ is coded as ‘ml do cf’. How is ‘food’ coded in that language?
A
ml
B
cf
C
tk
D
do
64. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? GLO NSV UZC BGJ ?
A
INQ
B
IOP
C
IQW
D
INO
65. If ‘E’ stands for ‘+’, ‘F’ stands for ‘−’, ‘G’ stands for ‘×’ and ‘H’ stands for ‘÷’, what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 72 H 8 G 2 E 10 F 5 = ?
A
27
B
23
C
25
D
21
66. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). (Counting to be done from left to right only.) (Left) 1 2 8 4 6 9 5 8 8 7 9 2 6 6 5 8 6 3 1 1 4 4 6 (Right) How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
Three
B
Four
C
Two
D
One
67. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 3 1 4 6 9 3 5 7 7 9 3 8 6 3 4 4 2 4 7 3 3 8 7 2 2 7 1 (Right) How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
A
Two
B
Three
C
One
D
Zero
68. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 4 6 12 14 28 ?
A
32
B
30
C
29
D
31
69. Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. No one sits to the right of C. Only three people sit between C and D. Only two people sit between D and G. A sits third to the left of F. B sits to the immediate right of F. How many people sit to the right of B?
A
1
B
3
C
2
D
4
70. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
OK-PM
B
IE-JG
C
KG-LI
D
MI-NL
71. NHRX is related to RFVV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, VDZT is related to ZBDR. To which of the following is DZHP related, following the same logic? 6415
A
GYMO
B
HXLN
C
GWKM
D
IYLO
72. Refer to the given number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) 6 2 5 4 7 3 9 1 6 7 4 2 1 8 6 4 9 8 3 9 2 7 1 5 1 7 2 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
Three
B
One
C
Two
D
More than three
73. Seven boxes, D, E, F, U, V, W and X, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. No box is kept above X. Only two boxes are kept between W and V. Only U is kept below E. Only three boxes are kept between E and W. D is not kept immediately above V. How many boxes are kept between F and U?
A
One
B
Three
C
Two
D
Four
74. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? 11 14 19 26 ?
A
35
B
32
C
30
D
31
75. In a certain code language, ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ ‘A - B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’ ‘A * B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’ ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ Based on the above, how is X related to Q if ‘X ÷ Y + Z * P - Q’?
A
Mother’s mother
B
Father’s mother
C
Sister
D
Mother
76. A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. A sits third to the left of X. Only one person sits between X and C when counted from the left of C. Only two people sit between B and W when counted from the right of W. D is an immediate neighbour of B. Who sits third to the right of Y?
A
D
B
A
C
W
D
C
77. With which country did India sign a major defence agreement worth ₹63,000 crore on 28 April 2025, for the acquisition of 26 Rafale-Marine fighter jets?
A
Denmark
B
France
C
Brazil
D
Russia
78. Who among the following was awarded the Women's Player of the Year at the AIFF Awards 2025?
A
Sujata Kar
B
Panthoi Chanu
C
Soumya Guguloth
D
Toijam Thoibisana Chanu
79. Which of the following states launched Surakshit Shanivar (Safe Saturday), a disaster preparedness initiative for students in June 2025?
A
Jharkhand
B
Bihar
C
Assam
D
Uttar Pradesh
80. In February 2025, the Technology Development Board signed an agreement with which company to produce purified pyrolysis oil to make circular plastics and sustainable chemicals?
A
APChemi Pvt. Ltd, Navi Mumbai
B
Jaypee Chemicals, Jaipur
C
Adani Chemicals Ltd, Ahmedabad
D
Tata Chemicals Ltd, Mumbai
81. In May 2025, Sudan’s army appointed whom among the following as a new Prime Minister after two years of civil war?
A
Osman Hussein
B
Abdalla Hamdok
C
Dafallah al‑Haj Ali
D
Kamil al‑Taib Idris
82. In April 2025, which of the following cities was hit by a sandstorm causing major flight disruptions?
A
Beijing, China
B
New Delhi, India
C
Dubai, UAE
D
Basra, Iraq
83. With which country did India sign a significant defence Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) (through the JCBL Group) in April 2025 which is aimed at bolstering India’s domestic defence manufacturing capabilities?
A
Japan
B
Qatar
C
Slovakia
D
Egypt
84. The 28 th National Conference on e-Governance (NCeG) was held in _______________ during June 2025.
A
Chennai
B
Bengaluru
C
Visakhapatnam
D
Kolkata
85. Who is the author of the book ‘Wild Fictions: Essays’ published in January 2025?
A
Aria Aber
B
Nandini Purandare
C
Amitav Ghosh
D
Santanu Bhattacharya
86. Where was the 58 th edition of the World Table Tennis Championships held in May 2025?
A
Berlin, Germany
B
Paris, France
C
Tokyo, Japan
D
Doha, Qatar
87. In May 2025, which among the following institutions formally announced the creation of the Payments Regulatory Board (PRB), a six-member panel responsible for overseeing the country’s payment systems?
A
Small Industries Development Bank of India
B
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
C
Securities and Exchange Board of India
D
Reserve Bank of India
88. Where was the headquarters of the National Turmeric Board inaugurated by Union Home Minister Amit Shah in June 2025?
A
Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh
B
Nizamabad, Telangana
C
Mysuru, Karnataka
D
Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
89. Where was the 7 th Khelo India Youth Games held in May 2025?
A
Maharashtra
B
Uttar Pradesh
C
Bihar
D
New Delhi
90. In January 2025, who clinched the men’s singles title at the India Open 2025 badminton tournament in New Delhi?
A
Kento Momota
B
Viktor Axelsen
C
Chen Long
D
Lee Cheuk Yiu
91. What is the main aim of the Youth Spiritual Summit held in Varanasi on the banks of River Ganga in July 2025?
A
Promote awareness about river conservation
B
Foster a national resolve against drug abuse
C
Encourage use of digital tools for literacy
D
Support local youth in rural entrepreneurship
92. In March 2025, the central bank of which country signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to enable cross-border transactions in local currencies?
A
Sri Lanka
B
Singapore
C
Mauritius
D
United Arab Emirates
93. In 2025, Shubhanshu Shukla conducted an International Space Station (ISS) experiment with moong and methi seeds to study:
A
Resistance of legumes to common pesticides
B
Seed germination under microgravity conditions
C
High-yield oilseed production on Earth
D
Soil nutrient cycling under space conditions
94. As of 2023, how many wildlife sanctuaries are there in India?
A
655
B
623
C
573
D
585
95. Which of the following folk artists became the first dhaki to win a Padma Shri in 2025?
A
Gokul Chandra Das
B
Leander Paes
C
Anant Nag
D
Mary Kom
96. Where was the 2 nd Global Cervical Cancer Elimination Forum held?
A
Jakarta, Indonesia
B
Bali, Indonesia
C
Kigali, Rwanda
D
Cartagena, Colombia "
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