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Group D — Test 17
00:00
1
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01. Which of the following statements is correct for life processes in plants?
A
Environment is under the control of very few plants.
B
Environment is under the control of most plants.
C
The environmental sources of energy are uniform.
D
Environment is not under the control of plants.
02. Which of the following is NOT a method of reproduction by a solitary individual organism?
A
Fragmentation
B
Fission
C
Sexual reproduction
D
Regeneration
03. Which of the following functions is NOT performed by the placenta?
A
Secretes oxytocin to start childbirth
B
Produces hormones to support pregnancy
C
Allows oxygen and nutrients to pass from mother to fetus
D
Removes carbon dioxide and waste from fetal blood
04. A person wearing shoes with total area 0.02 m² stands on the ground. If the person’s weight is 600 N, the pressure on the ground is _________.
A
600 N/m²
B
12,000 N/m²
C
1200 N/m²
D
30,000 N/m²
05. Bone is classified as connective tissue primarily because it:
A
Produces nerve impulses
B
Transports oxygen
C
Lacks any matrix substance
D
Contains cells dispersed in a mineralised extracellular matrix
06. If a person does an amount of work W in time t, how is power calculated?
A
Power = work + time
B
Power = work × time
C
Power = time ÷ work
D
Power = work ÷ time
07. 200 J of heat is produced per second in an 8 Ω resistance. What is the potential difference across the resistor?
A
40 V
B
50 V
C
30 V
D
20 V
08. In a domestic electric circuit, the main purpose of a FUSE is _______.
A
To store electricity
B
To reduce voltage
C
To prevent overloading and protect appliances
D
To increase current
09. Butane (C ₄ H ₁₀ ) exists in two different forms: one with a straight chain and one with a branched chain. What is this phenomenon called?
A
Polymerisation
B
Isomerism
C
Catenation
D
Sublimation
10. Why are the testes positioned externally rather than inside the abdominal cavity?
A
To regulate testosterone production
B
To facilitate sperm transport
C
To maintain a lower temperature for sperm formation
D
To form a common passage for urine and sperms
11. In graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon atoms in the same plane giving a _______ array.
A
tetragonal
B
pentagonal
C
hexagonal
D
square pyramidal
12. Which of the following statements is true for a velocity-time graph of uniform velocity?
A
The graph is a curve
B
Slope = Acceleration = 0
C
Slope = Acceleration ≠ 0
D
Area under curve = speed, not displacement
13. According to the sign convention, the height of an erect image formed by a mirror is taken as:
A
Positive
B
Imaginary
C
Zero
D
Negative
14. Which type of muscle is found in the walls of internal organs like the stomach and intestines?
A
Skeletal muscle
B
Smooth muscle
C
Voluntary muscle
D
Striated muscle
15. What is a key feature of Rutherford's atomic model?
A
Electrons are fixed in shells around the nucleus.
B
Atom has a dense positive nucleus at the center.
C
Nucleus contains only electrons with negative charge.
D
Atom is a uniform positive sphere throughout.
16. Which of the following factors is NOT responsible for corrosion?
A
Air
B
Alloying
C
Water
D
Acid
17. Which of the following phenomena is NOT a physical change?
A
Melting of ice
B
Boiling of water
C
Freezing of water
D
Burning of candle
18. What is the chemical formula of magnesium chloride?
A
MgCl2
B
Mg ₂ Cl
C
MgCl ₃
D
MgCl
19. A coin is placed on a card covering a glass. When the card is flicked quickly with a finger, the coin falls straight into the glass. What does this situation show?
A
The coin moves because the card pushes it
B
The coin remains at rest due to inertia when the card moves away
C
The flick applies a force directly to the coin
D
The coin and card both move away due to inertia
20. Which of the following is responsible for the basic nature of a substance?
A
Cl-
B
OH-
C
Na+
D
H+
21. Which of the following salts will form a solution with pH greater than 7 when dissolved in water?
A
Sodium acetate
B
Sodium chloride
C
Copper sulphate
D
Ammonium chloride
22. Which of the following is a primary advantage of constructing a big dam?
A
Prevention of all downstream flooding
B
Decentralised energy production
C
Generation of hydroelectric power
D
Immediate increase in local biodiversity
23. Which of the following are cultivated for the pearls they make?
A
Oysters
B
Sardines
C
Pomfrets
D
Prawns
24. Which of the following statement(s) is true when a straw appears bent when placed in a glass of water? Statement 1: The incident ray, refracted ray, and normal lie in the same plane. Statement 2: The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to sine of angle of refraction is constant.
A
Only statement 1
B
Both statement 1 and 2
C
Only statement 2
D
Neither statement 1 nor 2
25. A high-pitch and a low-pitch sound have ___________, respectively.
A
low frequency and high frequency
B
high amplitude and low frequency
C
low amplitude and high frequency
D
high frequency and low frequency
26. Given that R is the third proportional of 9 and Q. If Q is the sum of first three odd natural numbers, then find the value of R. 4968
A
7
B
11
C
9
D
10
27. Provisions meant for 100 men for 12 weeks are shared when 50 more men join them. For how many weeks will the provisions now last?
A
12
B
10
C
8
D
6
28. The number of prime numbers lying between 386 and 395 is:
A
0
B
1
C
3
D
2
29. One pipe can fill a tank in 7 minutes while another pipe can empty the completely filled tank in 56 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how many minutes will it take to fill one-fourth of the tank?
A
2
B
4
C
8
D
6
30. If 20% of a number is added to 72, then the result is the same number. 75% of the same number is: 342
A
67.5
B
77.5
C
87.5
D
97.5
31. The amount on a sum of ₹5,700 at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded annually, in 2 years will be:
A
₹7,798
B
₹6,629
C
₹6,897
D
₹7,505
32. In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at the point T (inside the quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 32.5°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 6 : 7, then what is the difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?
A
1°
B
4°
C
9°
D
5°
33. If a 8,763 m long train crosses a pole in 127 seconds, then find the time (in seconds) taken by the train to cross a 552 m long platform. 3636
A
135
B
132
C
145
D
144
34. If the median of the given data is 143 + X , find X (round off to two decimal places). Height in cm No. of boys Below 140 4 140 – 145 7 145 – 150 18 150 – 155 11 155 - 160 6 160 - 700 5 6760
A
9.23
B
7.05
C
6.03
D
8.15
35. A car's speed decreases by 20% every hour. If it covers a certain distance in 4 hours, how much time would it take to cover the same distance at its original speed? 3163
A
3.952 hours
B
3.942 hours
C
2.942 hours
D
2.952 hours
36. Eighteen men can dig a well 65 feet deep in 4 days. How many men can dig a well 130 feet deep in 6 days?
A
26
B
27
C
22
D
24
37. From a point P on a level ground, the angle of elevation of the top tower is 30°. If the tower is 100 m high, find the distance of point P from the foot of the tower.
A
173 m
B
170 m
C
175 m
D
178 m
38. The area of a rectangular field is 176 m 2 and the length of its diagonal is 18 m. Find the perimeter of this field.
A
52 m
B
60 m
C
48 m
D
61 m
39. The difference in the measures of two complementary angles is 22°. Find the measure of the bigger angle.
A
50°
B
65°
C
52°
D
56°
40. The father is currently three times that of his son's age. Ten years ago from now, the father's age was five times the son's age. What will be the sum of their ages ten years from now?
A
120 years
B
90 years
C
100 years
D
80 years
41. After selling an article at a discount of 50%, the profit percentage obtained is 30%. What is the mark-up percentage?
A
166%
B
158%
C
160%
D
162%
42. The arithmetic mean of the observations 16, 85, 98, 12, 69, 95, 21, 45 and 54 is:
A
63
B
55
C
62
D
48
43. On selling an item for ₹120, a shopkeeper earns x% profit. If it is sold for ₹20 more than the earlier price, the percentage of profit would be 2x%. The value of x is _____.
A
15
B
20
C
30
D
40
44. If 5x + 2 = 62, then find the value of x.
A
10
B
20
C
15
D
12
45. In an election, Candidate A secured 60% of the total valid votes, while Candidate B received the rest. If the total number of valid votes was 18,600, find the difference between the number of votes the two candidates received.
A
3,550
B
2,520
C
2,750
D
3,720
46. A spherical chocolate truffle with radius 6 cm has a spherical hollow cavity at its centre. If the volume of chocolate used is exactly 800 π /3 cm³, what is the radius of the hollow cavity (rounded off to two decimal places)?
A
2.26 cm
B
2.18 cm
C
2.44 cm
D
2.52 cm
47. Prakhar and Riya together invested ₹10,500 in a business. At the end of the year, out of a total profit of ₹9,000, Prakhar's share was ₹1,200. How much was Prakhar's investment?
A
₹2,780
B
₹1,400
C
₹1,645
D
₹1,635
48. The marked price of a wardrobe is ₹821, which is 39% above the cost price. If the profit percent is 2%, find the discount percentage (rounded off to two decimal places).
A
26.62%
B
23.62%
C
26%
D
28.03%
49. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. Only two people sit between D and A when counted from the left of A. C sits third to the left of G. E sits to the immediate right of G. E sits second to the left of D. F is an immediate neighbour of C. How many people sit between B and G when counted from the left of G?
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
1
50. In a certain code language, ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ ‘A - B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’ ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’ ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ Based on the above, how is L related to P if ‘L ÷ M + N - O × P’?
A
Father’s sister
B
Mother’s sister
C
Father’s mother
D
Mother’s mother
51. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 11, 23, 47, 83, 131, ?
A
190
B
193
C
191
D
192
52. A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line, facing the north. Only two people sit to the left of C. Only three people sit between C and W. Only one person sits between W and X. D sits to the immediate left of A. Y is not an immediate neighbour of W. How many people sit to the right of B?
A
Four
B
Three
C
Two
D
One
53. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. ACNE - CANE - ENCA INCH - NICH - HCNI
A
GIRL - IGRL - LIRG
B
LADY - ALDY - YDAL
C
RAKE - ARKE - AKER
D
QUAD - QAUD - DAUQ
54. If + means - , - means x , x means ÷ , ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 20 – 6 ÷ 4 + 60 x 15 = ?
A
126
B
118
C
123
D
120
55. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged? 25 − 33 × 44 ÷ 24 + 39 = ?
A
6
B
4
C
5
D
2
56. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
MSO
B
BHE
C
PVR
D
DJF
57. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: No dolls are rings. No rings are lamps. Conclusions: (I) All dolls are lamps. (II) No lamps are dolls. 6
A
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
B
Only conclusion (II) follows.
C
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
D
Only conclusion (I) follows.
58. Saksham starts from point A and drives 71 km towards east. He then takes a left turn, drives 48 km, turns left and drives 81 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 89 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 10 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again? (Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
40 km to the north
B
44 km to the north
C
41 km to the north
D
42 km to the south
59. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (6, 21, 15) (47, 2197, 12)
A
(30, 887, 13)
B
(34, 1130, 25)
C
(26, 663, 12)
D
(35, 1215, 9)
60. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 821 823 827 833 841 ? 4388
A
848
B
856
C
853
D
851
61. A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line, facing the north. Only three people sit between W and Y. A sits to the immediate left of Y. No one sits to the right of B. Only two people sit between B and A. X sits to the immediate right of D. How many people sit between C and X?
A
Four
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
62. Each of the digits in the number 54761829 is arranged in descending order from left to right. What will the product of the digits that are third from the left and second from the right in the new number thus formed be? 784
A
18
B
28
C
16
D
14
63. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 304 313 320 325 ? 329 3524
A
325
B
328
C
326
D
327
64. MR 8 is related to RU −10 in a certain way. In the same way, IB 12 is related to NE −6. To which of the given options is US 1 related, following the same logic?
A
ZV −17
B
HU −11
C
MJ −19
D
BH −12
65. Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 7 2 7 5 9 6 4 6 6 6 5 6 9 6 1 1 2 2 7 5 3 (Right) How many such odd digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an even digit and also immediately followed by an even digit? 4102
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
1
66. In a certain code language, ‘star city lemon’ is coded as 'fq vn ln' and ‘zip lid star’ is coded as ‘vn iu km’. How is ‘star’ coded in the given language?
A
vn
B
ln
C
iu
D
fq
67. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers.) (Left) % & € 5 % 3 7 @ % % % 1 * % 2 7 5 @ 6 7 1 1 (Right) How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a number?
A
2
B
1
C
4
D
3
68. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? SGN 5 RFM 7 QEL 9 PDK 11 ?
A
OEL 13
B
QEL 12
C
OCJ 13
D
RCJ 12
69. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? VMQ TKO RIM PGK ?
A
NFJ
B
NEI
C
NFI
D
NEJ
70. Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. YCE−FJL LPR−SWY
A
TXZ−AEG
B
TWX−ZDF
C
TXZ−ZEF
D
TWX−AEG
71. This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 426 125 357 489 627 (Right) (Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7) Note: All operations to be done from left to right. If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order, the position(s) of how many numbers will remain unchanged?
A
Two
B
One
C
Four
D
Three
72. In a certain code language, ‘FOUR’ is coded as ‘5812’ and ‘ROUT’ is coded as ‘5628’. What is the code for ‘T’ in the given code language? 2225
A
8
B
2
C
6
D
5
73. Sahana ranked 4 th from the top and 18 th from the bottom in her class. How many students are there in the class?
A
21
B
25
C
16
D
23
74. Seven boxes, M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only P is kept above O. Only Q is kept between O and R. Only N is kept below S. How many boxes are kept between M and N?
A
One
B
Three
C
Two
D
Four
75. Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). (Counting to be done from left to right only.) (Left) 1 4 6 7 3 8 5 3 2 1 5 9 6 6 6 6 8 7 1 6 6 3 1 (Right) How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
A
One
B
Two
C
More than three
D
Three
76. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
IF-BH
B
OL-HM
C
RO-KP
D
LI-EJ
77. Vinay starts from Point A and drives 10 km towards the south. He then takes a right turn, drives 4 km, turns right and drives 14 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 8 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only, unless specified.)
A
4 km to the east
B
3 km to the east
C
3 km to the west
D
4 km to the west
78. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some kites are balloons. No balloon is a plane. Conclusions: (I): Some kites are planes. (II): Some balloons are kites.
A
Only conclusion (II) follows
B
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
C
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
D
Only conclusion (I) follows
79. In July 2025, which Union Minister introduced the National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Bill 2025 in Lok Sabha?
A
Rajnath Singh
B
Anurag Thakur
C
Kiren Rijiju
D
Mansukh Mandaviya
80. In September 2025, the South Western Railway (SWR) reported that its Railway Protection Force (RPF) had reached out to more than two lakh women passengers under which of the following initiative, aimed at ensuring safety and comfort for women traveling alone?
A
Mahila Suraksha Doot Program
B
Mission Shakti
C
Operation Meri Saheli
D
Safe City Project
81. The Military Combat Parachute System (MCPS), which successfully carried out a combat freefall jump from 32,000 feet in October 2025, was indigenously created by ______.
A
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
B
Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
C
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
D
Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
82. Which of the following banks paid a record ₹8,076.84 crore dividend to the Government of India for FY25 in June 2025?
A
Bank of India
B
State Bank of India
C
Indian Bank
D
Bank of Baroda
83. What breakthrough innovation in renewable energy storage, which replaces liquid electrolyte with a solid one, was announced in 2025?
A
Hydrogen fusion battery
B
Graphene-supercapacitor hybrid
C
Lithium-silicon flexible battery
D
Solid-state sodium-ion battery
84. Which coach received a royal knighthood in 2025 for contributions to national football?
A
Pep Guardiola
B
José Mourinho
C
Gareth Southgate
D
Roberto Martinez
85. Wild Fictions: Essays published in January 2025, is written by which author?
A
Santanu Bhattacharya
B
Gautam Bhatia
C
Nidhi Razdan
D
Amitav Ghosh
86. In June 2025, which of the following countries hosted the observance of the UN Virtual Worlds Day 2025?
A
Italy
B
France
C
Brazil
D
Germany
87. How many people died due to natural disasters in 2024–25 as per provisional estimates from the Disaster Management (DM) division of the Home Affairs ministry?
A
1500
B
4330
C
6900
D
3080
88. Where was the 17 th edition of the Nomadic Elephant defense joint military drill between India and Mongolia held in 2025?
A
Rajasthan, India
B
Kharkhorin, Mongolia
C
Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia
D
New Delhi, India
89. Who among the following won the Global Teacher Prize awarded in February 2025?
A
Asma Mustafa
B
Sister Zeph
C
Ranjitsinh Disale
D
Mansour Al Mansour
90. Which of the following banks raised $1 billion via a 10-year USD-denominated bond in international markets in January 2025?
A
Reserve Bank of India
B
Exim Bank of India
C
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
D
Indian Overseas Bank
91. The South Asian Athletics Championships were held in _______ 2025.
A
April
B
March
C
June
D
May
92. Which DRDO lab in Pune developed the 6.8×43 mm assault rifle prototype?
A
The Armament Research Establishment (ARE)
B
The Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE)
C
The Armament Exploration and Innovation Establishment (AEIE)
D
The Armament Development Establishment (ADE)
93. In July 2025, Kavinder Gupta, who served as Deputy Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir, assumed the office of Lieutenant Governor of ______.
A
Himachal Pradesh
B
Sikkim
C
Ladakh
D
Arunachal Pradesh
94. Which of the following was designated as the 58th Tiger Reserve of India?
A
Ranthambore National Park
B
Panna National Park
C
Madhav National Park
D
Pench National Park
95. Which of the following is the unified inundation forecasting system launched by the Ministry of Jal Shakti in July 2025 that provides two‑days advance inundation forecasts up to village level in the form of flood‑inundation maps and water‑level predictions?
A
C‑FLOOD
B
Unified Flood Vision
C
Village Flood Radar
D
FloodSense Advance
96. What was Parul Chaudhary’s new national record time in the 3000-m steeplechase 2025 Asian Athletics Championships?
A
9:12.46
B
8:55.50
C
9:13.39
D
9:30.45
97. Who among the following was awarded Comeback of the Year at the 2025 Laureus Awards?
A
Rebeca Andrade
B
Rafael Nadal
C
Tom Pidcock
D
Novak Djokovic
98. Who among the following was appointed as the Chairman of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) in July 2025?
A
Suman Bery
B
Ajay Seth
C
B. V. R. Subramaniyam
D
Amitabh Kant "
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