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Group D — Test 15
00:00
1
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01. When an acid reacts with a metal carbonate, which gas is typically produced?
A
Carbon dioxide gas
B
Hydrogen gas
C
Nitrogen gas
D
Oxygen gas
02. Which Rutherford's experiment led to the discovery of the atoimc nucleus?
A
Beta-particle scattering
B
Cathode Ray experiment
C
Alpha-particle scattering
D
Photoelectric effect
03. Which of the following is responsible for positive geotropism movement in plants?
A
Chemical
B
Gravity
C
Light
D
Water
04. What is the type of bonding that usually exists in most of the carbon compounds?
A
Coordinate bonding
B
Covalent bonding
C
Ionic bonding
D
Hydrogen bonding
05. A cell divides to form two identical daughter cells, each having the same chromosome number as the parent cell. What type of cell division is this called?
A
Meiosis
B
Budding
C
Mitosis
D
Cytokinesis
06. What is the direction of velocity in uniform circular motion?
A
Towards the centre of the circle
B
Along the tangent to the circle
C
Along the radius of the circle
D
Away from the circle
07. A body of mass 2 kg is moving with a velocity of 10 m/s. A force of 4 N is applied for 5 s. The final velocity is:
A
25 m/s
B
15 m/s
C
20 m/s
D
35 m/s
08. When solutions of lead(II) nitrate and potassium iodide are mixed, the reaction leads to the formation of which of the following?
A
An orange precipitate of lead iodate is formed.
B
An orange precipitate of lead iodide is formed.
C
A yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed.
D
A yellow precipitate of lead sulphate is formed.
09. Read the given statements with regards to importance of variation produced by sexual reproduction in plants and select the most appropriate option. Statement A: Reproduction is linked to the stability of populations of species. Statement B: Variation is thus not useful for the survival of species over time.
A
Both Statement A and statement B is correct
B
Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct
C
Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect
D
Both Statement A and statement B is incorrect
10. Waste generated by developing human embryo is removed with the help of which of the following organs?
A
Scrotum
B
Fallopian tube
C
Ovaries
D
Placenta
11. What does the potential energy of an object depend on?
A
Its temperature
B
Its colour and shape
C
Its position or arrangement
D
Its speed during motion
12. Approximately what percentage of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next in an ecosystem?
A
1%
B
10%
C
90%
D
50%
13. In addition to plasma membrane, which of the following outer coverings is present in plant cells?
A
Cell wall
B
Cytoplasm
C
Nuclear membrane
D
Centriole
14. Which of the following best describes Thomson's model of an atom?
A
Electrons revolve around the nucleus in fixed orbits.
B
An atom has a positively charged nucleus and electrons outside.
C
An atom is a sphere of positive charge with electrons embedded in it like seeds in a watermelon.
D
An atom is mostly empty space with a dense nucleus.
15. What is the term for the process in which white light breaks up into different colours?
A
Reflection
B
Scattering
C
Dispersion
D
Refraction
16. The process used for removing gangue from the ore works on the basis of difference of their chemical or physical properties and is called ______ of ores.
A
enrichment
B
weighing
C
polishing
D
colouring
17. Which of the following pair is a correct example, which shows number of Valency as 2?
A
Phosphate and nitride
B
Sodium and sulphate
C
Ammonium and sulphate
D
Sulphate and sulphite
18. In eukaryotic cells, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is mainly responsible for:
A
Sugar breakdown
B
Lipid synthesis and detoxification
C
Protein synthesis
D
Genetic information storage
19. Which of the following statements about magnetic field lines is correct?
A
They form closed loops inside and outside the magnet
B
They always intersect
C
They originate only from the centre of the magnet
D
They show the path of charged particles
20. An electric iron operating at 220 V consumes energy at a rate of 840 W when the heating is at its maximum. What is the resistance of the coil used in the iron?
A
50.6 Ω
B
47.6 Ω
C
55.6 Ω
D
57.6 Ω
21. Which of the following statements is responsible for the atmospheric refraction?
A
Scattering of light in atmosphere
B
Reflection of light by atmosphere
C
Bending of light due to change in air density
D
Absorption of light by air molecules
22. If an object weighs 60 N when measured on the surface of the Earth, what would be its approximate weight when measured on the surface of the Moon?
A
60 N
B
10 N
C
360 N
D
15 N
23. A sound wave has a frequency of 4 kHz and a wavelength of 15 cm. How much time will it take to cover a distance of 1.8 km?
A
3 seconds
B
4 seconds
C
0.03 seconds
D
0.003 seconds
24. Washing soda is obtained from baking soda by which of the following processes?
A
Evaporation of baking soda in sunlight
B
Mixing baking soda with lime water
C
Adding hydrochloric acid to baking soda
D
Heating baking soda followed by crystallisation from water
25. What is prevented when the fallopian tubes in females are blocked?
A
Childbirth
B
Menstrual cycle
C
Fertilisation
D
Egg production
26. Find the value of 4168
A
0.0006
B
0.6
C
0.006
D
0.06
27. The amount on a sum of ₹2,600 at 20% per annum compound interest, compounded annually, in 2 years will be:
A
₹2,950
B
₹3,441
C
₹4,363
D
₹3,744
28. A number is split into two parts so that one part exceeds the other by 10. If the ratio of the two parts is 7 : 5, write the equation representing this situation by assuming the smaller part to be x.
A
35(x + 10) = x
B
5(10x + 1) = 7x
C
7(x + 10) = 5x
D
5(x + 10) = 7x
29. The sides of a triangle are 30 cm, 63 cm, and 51 cm. What is the length of its altitude corresponding to the side with a length of 63 cm?
A
3 cm
B
24 cm
C
48 cm
D
57 cm
30. 6727
A
47
B
41
C
45
D
43
31. Manoj got a new curtain at 50% discount. If Manoj did not get any discount, Manoj would have to pay ₹251 extra. So how much did Manoj pay for the curtain? 657
A
₹251
B
₹252
C
₹250
D
₹253
32. Eight years ago, A was thrice as old as B. Eight years hence, A will be twice as old as B. Find A's present age.
A
64 years
B
56 years
C
52 years
D
60 years
33. The cost of a washing machine is 50% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the washing machine increases by 62% and that of the TV decreases by 33%, then what is the percentage change in the total cost of 6 washing machines and 2 TVs?
A
Decrease by 27%
B
Decrease by 31%
C
Increase by 19%
D
Increase by 24%
34. The marked price of a chair is ₹2,700, which is 35% above the cost price. It is sold at a discount of 20% on the marked price. Find the profit percentage.
A
8%
B
7%
C
10%
D
9%
35. If the mean proportional of X and 250 is 50, then find the value of X.
A
13
B
10
C
12
D
8
36. X people were given a contract for doing a piece of work in 34 days. 3 people did not turn up to work due to sickness, and the rest of the people completed the work in 35 days. What is the value of X?
A
115
B
103
C
105
D
104
37. Provisions meant for 100 men for 13 weeks are shared when 30 more men join them. For how many weeks will the provisions now last?
A
8
B
10
C
14
D
12
38. The average age of 36 students of a class is 12 years. If the age of the teacher is also included, the average age of the whole group becomes 13 years. The age (in years) of the teacher is:
A
50
B
52
C
55
D
49
39. If 20% of a number is added to 84, then the result is the same number. 60% of the same number is:
A
73
B
63
C
93
D
83
40. 3174
A
28 minutes
B
26 minutes
C
10 minutes
D
18 minutes
41. The length, breadth and height of a cuboid are in the ratio 5 : 3 : 2. If the total surface area of the cuboid is 992 m 2 , find its volume.
A
1,980 m3
B
2,070 m3
C
2,040 m3
D
1,920 m3
42. One pipe can fill a tank in 9 minutes while another pipe can empty the completely filled tank in 90 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how many minutes will it take to fill one-half of the tank?
A
6
B
11
C
5
D
10
43. The lengths of the two diagonals of a rhombus are 10 cm and 24 cm. Find the length of its perimeter (in cm).
A
52
B
34
C
13
D
26
44. An Uber auto covers a distance of 639 km in 71 hours. What is its speed in km/hr?
A
4
B
19
C
13
D
9
45. Aman and Yogita together invested ₹52,200 in a business. At the end of the year, out of a total profit of ₹5,800, Aman's share was ₹1,700. What was the investment of Aman?
A
₹13,695
B
₹16,620
C
₹15,300
D
₹15,490
46. Amit sells two articles for ₹360 each. On one, he gains 20%, and on the other, he loses 10%. Find the gain or loss percent in the entire transaction. [Answer correct to two places after decimal.]
A
5.56% loss
B
2.86% profit
C
4.56% loss
D
5.56% profit
47. The product of two numbers is 63 and their difference is 7. The sum of squares of the two numbers is
A
220
B
175
C
130
D
112
48. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will be come in place of question mark ‘?’ in the following equation? 13 B 32 C 130 A 26 D 41 = ?
A
385
B
377
C
380
D
369
49. FAEG is related to MHLN in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, IDHJ is related to PKOQ. To which of the given options is LGKM related, following the same logic?
A
NSRT
B
NSTR
C
SNRT
D
SNTR
50. Which of the given letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the following series to make it logically complete? IIM 2 JKL −11 KMK −24 ? MQI −50
A
RTD −21
B
LLP −22
C
KLO −33
D
LOJ −37
51. Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. No one sits to the right of C. Only three people sit between C and D. Only two people sit between D and G. A sits third to the left of F. B sits to the immediate right of F. How many people sit to the right of B? 7931
A
2
B
3
C
1
D
4
52. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 510 509 506 501 494 ?
A
485
B
486
C
484
D
487
53. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 313 304 295 286 277 ?
A
271
B
273
C
268
D
267
54. In a certain code language, ‘OMER’ is coded as ‘1834’ and ‘DEMO’ is coded as ‘5148’. What is the code for ‘D’ in the given code language?
A
5
B
1
C
4
D
8
55. Aruna starts from Point A and drives 11 km towards the north. She then takes a right turn, drives 10 km, turns right and drives 21 km. She then takes a right turn and drives 5 km. She takes a final right turn, drives 10 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should she drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified.)
A
6 km towards the north
B
5 km towards the south
C
5 km towards the west
D
4 km towards the south
56. Mr. Z starts from Point A and drives 12 km towards the South. He then takes a right turn, drives 21 km, then turns right and drives 14 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 23 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km, and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only, unless specified.)
A
4 km to the south
B
5 km to the east
C
2 km to the west
D
3 km to the east
57. IN 5 is related to KJ −2 in a certain way. In the same way, GL 9 is related to IH 2. To which of the given options is RW 11 related, following the same logic?
A
YT 6
B
TS 4
C
MK 7
D
HY 4
58. Seven boxes B, C, D, I, J, K and L are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only four boxes are kept above L. Only one box is kept above J. Only one box is kept between J and C. B is kept immediately above D. K is kept at some place below I. How many boxes are kept between I and B?
A
One
B
Three
C
Two
D
Four
59. Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) © $ £ 7 3 @ £ 7 8 6 8 % 6 © 3 4 & € 9 @ 8 5 (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a number?
A
6
B
4
C
3
D
1
60. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? UMQ TLP SKO RJN ?
A
QJM
B
QIN
C
QIM
D
QJN
61. In a certain code language, ‘drinking is dangerous’ is coded as ‘cd pk os’, ‘avoid dangerous habit’ is coded as ‘os mp ls’, and ‘please avoid drinking’ is coded as ‘rk pk mp’. How is ‘dangerous’ coded in the given language?
A
ls
B
os
C
mp
D
rk
62. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
NP - KM
B
JL - GI
C
RT - OQ
D
PR - ML
63. F, G, H, I, M, N and O are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. Only two people sit between I and O when counted from the left of O. G sits third to the left of N. H sits to the immediate right of N. H sits second to the left of I. F is not an immediate neighbour of G. Who sits third to the right of M?
A
H
B
N
C
O
D
F
64. Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) 6 7 8 9 & 5 £ & $ £ $ 1 * * # * € 8 % 8 © 7 (Right) How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A
4
B
3
C
5
D
6
65. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
TPL
B
SOK
C
PMH
D
OKG
66. A, B, C, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. Only two people sit between U and S when counted from the right of U. Only three people sit between R and C when counted from the right of C. S sits to the immediate right of C. T sits to the immediate right of A. Who sits fourth to the right of B?
A
A
B
T
C
S
D
C
67. Seven boxes, D, E, F, U, V, W and X, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only two boxes are kept below W. Only two boxes are kept between W and U. Only one box is kept between U and E. X is kept immediately above V. F is kept at some place below D. How many boxes are kept between D and X?
A
Four
B
One
C
Three
D
Two
68. Select the triad that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two triads given below. Both triads follow the same pattern. JC-LE-NP MF-OH-QS
A
OI-RK-TU
B
OI-RL-TU
C
PI-RK-TU
D
PI-RK-TV
69. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 17 B 17 C 324 A 9 D 22 = ?
A
303
B
307
C
318
D
310
70. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 1021 1023 1027 1033 1041 ?
A
1053
B
1055
C
1051
D
1049
71. In a certain code language, ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the son of B’ ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’ ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ Based on the above, how is D related to J if ‘D – F ÷ G × H + J’?
A
Son's wife's mother's father
B
Son's wife's father's father
C
Son's wife's father's brother
D
Son's wife's mother's brother
72. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All pencils are crayons. Some crayons are batteries. Conclusions: (I): Some pencils are batteries. (II): Some crayons are pencils.
A
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
B
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
C
Only conclusion (I) follows
D
Only conclusion (II) follows
73. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 50 A 10 C 2 B 7 D 6 = ?
A
13
B
12
C
11
D
14
74. Refer to the number series given below and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Left) 1 6 9 7 7 9 4 3 3 3 1 5 8 7 6 6 8 6 7 7 9 6 2 7 8 2 5 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
4
B
5
C
3
D
2
75. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (33, 495, 15) (27, 648, 24)
A
(25, 575, 23)
B
(8, 179, 22)
C
(38, 41, 1)
D
(30, 573, 19)
76. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All fans are lights. Some lights are heaters. Some heaters are geysers. Conclusion (I): Some fans are heaters. Conclusion (II): Some lights are geysers. 11659
A
Only Conclusion I follows.
B
Only Conclusion II follows.
C
Neither Conclusion I or II follows.
D
Both Conclusion I or II follow.
77. Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Left) 6 4 3 2 7 6 4 9 9 6 5 4 9 7 6 8 3 5 1 5 1 2 4 8 9 (Right) How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
A
One
B
Three
C
Four
D
Two
78. The Indian Navy along with the navy of which other country held a joint PASSEX exercise near Mumbai on 10 July 2025, in the Arabian Sea?
A
Malaysia
B
Indonesia
C
Japan
D
Greece
79. How many critical highway segments are outlined in the report on India’s Priority Corridors for Zero-Emission Trucking for the adoption of zero-emission trucks?
A
Five
B
Eight
C
Ten
D
Twelve
80. Which among the following authorities invoked Stage-I of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) in May 2025 due to poor air quality in Delhi NCR?
A
Delhi Pollution Control Committee (DPCC), National Capital Territory of Delhi
B
Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas (CAQM)
C
Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
D
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW)
81. On 12 June 2025, which bank of India took a progressive step to streamline the Know Your Customer (KYC) updating process by allowing video-based identification and empowering Business Correspondents to handle KYC updates?
A
Indian Bank
B
State Bank of India
C
Bank of India
D
Reserve Bank of India
82. Which of the following was the 17 th flight of India’s Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV), launched in January 2025?
A
GSLV-F14
B
GSLV-F13
C
GSLV-F16
D
GSLV-F15
83. As per the Sustainable Development Report (SDR)-2025 published by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN), what is the rank of India among 193 UN member countries?
A
89
B
79
C
109
D
99
84. The deforestation drive in Kancha Gachibowli involved clearing land near which major educational institution in April 2025?
A
Central University of Hyderabad
B
Osmania University
C
Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad
D
National Institute of Technology, Warangal
85. Which English fast bowler was awarded a knighthood in April 2025 after retiring with a record 704 Test wickets, making him England’s all-time leading wicket-taker in Test cricket?
A
Stuart Broad
B
Andrew Flintoff
C
James Anderson
D
Darren Gough
86. Praveen Kumar, awarded the Khel Ratna, in January 2025, is associated with which discipline?
A
Shooting
B
Para‑Athletics
C
Boxing
D
Archery
87. Which of the following themes was observed for World Health Day 2025 on April 7?
A
Health for All
B
Our Planet, Our Health
C
Equity in Healthcare
D
Healthy beginnings, hopeful futures
88. The earlier Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) between India and Kyrgyzstan, which was replaced in 2025, was originally enforced in which year?
A
2000
B
2019
C
2021
D
2010
89. Which cinema was India's official Oscar entry but did NOT get nominated, yet swept 10 IIFA awards in March 2025?
A
Ram Setu
B
Laapataa Ladies
C
The Kerala Story
D
Darlings
90. In July 2025, the Ministry of Rural Development entered into an important partnership with the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) to realise the Government of India’s ‘Insurance for All by _____'.
A
2047
B
2035
C
2040
D
2045
91. On June 14, 2025, in which of the following cities of India did Kamlesh Paswan inaugurate Garuda Aerospace's new Agri-Drone Indigenization Facility?
A
Hubbali
B
Vijayawada
C
Chennai
D
Pune
92. In 2025, which schemes provide retired athletes career transition support, financial aid, and medical benefits?
A
National Awards and TOPS
B
NSFs and SAI
C
RESET and Pandit Deendayal Fund
D
Khelo India and PYKKA
93. Which of the following cricketers clinched the record for the fastest century by an Indian woman cricketer in ODIs, as of January 2025?
A
Deepti Sharma
B
Smriti Mandhana
C
Pratika Rawal
D
Harmanpreet Kaur
94. Who arrived in Varanasi to chair the 25 th Central Zonal Council meet in June 2025?
A
Narendra Modi
B
Rajnath Singh
C
Yogi Adityanath
D
Amit Shah
95. In July 2025, the Kerala Health Department stepped up vigil against which zoonotic disease after a few cases were detected in its two districts?
A
Tuberculosis
B
Nipah
C
Filariasis
D
Malaria
96. What is the main purpose of the e-Jagriti platform, launched by the Department of Consumer Affairs, Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India on 1 January 2025?
A
To expand India’s space exploration and satellite launches
B
To provide a single interface for consumer grievance redressal
C
To manage real estate and government accommodation services
D
To promote digital payments under the Digital India programme
97. In which of the following cities did the traffic police create awareness on noise pollution for motorists at traffic signals in July 2025?
A
Warangal
B
Jaipur
C
Lucknow
D
Chennai "
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