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Group D — Test 14
00:00
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01. The effect of multiple reflections of sound in large halls or auditoriums is, ________.
A
it converts sound into heat
B
it eliminates all echoes
C
it helps in uniform distribution of sound
D
it blocks sound propagation
02. Which of the following is NOT a biotic loss during the storage of grains?
A
Loss by mites
B
Loss by rodents
C
Loss by inappropriate moisture
D
Loss by insects
03. What makes the brain suitable for thinking activities?
A
Its connection to the heart
B
Its smooth surface
C
Its complex arrangement of many neurons
D
Its location near the ears
04. Which of the following statements about the magnetic field due to a circular loop is true?
A
The field depends on current and radius.
B
The field lines at the centre are circular.
C
The field lines are parallel to the plane of the loop.
D
The field is uniform everywhere around the loop.
05. In a genetic lab, a fertilised human embryo is found to have XX chromosomes. Which of the following is true?
A
The embryo has an extra Y chromosome.
B
The embryo lacks sex chromosomes.
C
The embryo will become a human male.
D
The embryo will become a human female.
06. An object is said to be in uniform motion if:
A
it covers unequal distances in unequal time intervals
B
it covers unequal distances in equal time intervals
C
it covers equal distances in equal time intervals
D
it covers equal distances in unequal time intervals
07. Which of the following is true about the magnetic field inside a solenoid?
A
It is non-uniform.
B
It is uniform and in the form of parallel straight lines.
C
It forms random patterns.
D
It is zero.
08. During indigestion, the stomach produces too much acid, that may be neutralised by which of the following?
A
Magnesium oxide (Milk of magnesia)
B
Magnesium carbonate (Milk of magnesia)
C
Magnesium sulphate (Milk of magnesia)
D
Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of magnesia)
09. Which of the following tissues is very elastic and used to connect two bones in our body?
A
Ligament
B
Mast cell
C
Adipocyte
D
Macrophage
10. Which of the following compounds is classified as a saturated hydrocarbon?
A
Ethene
B
Ethyne
C
Benzene
D
Ethane
11. The energy possessed by a moving object due to its motion is called:
A
chemical energy
B
potential energy
C
kinetic energy
D
thermal energy
12. Which of the following life processes leads to the breakdown of glucose in the absence of oxygen?
A
Fermentation
B
Digestion
C
Aerobic respiration
D
Excretion
13. Which of the following eye defects is mainly due to the weakening of the power of accommodation with age?
A
Myopia
B
Astigmatism
C
Presbyopia
D
Hypermetropia
14. Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?
A
Soil
B
Air
C
Sand and iron filings
D
Oil and water
15. An object has a weight of 24 N on Earth. What will be its weight on the Moon’s surface?
A
240 N
B
4 N
C
144 N
D
6 N
16. Which meristematic tissue has the highest levels of Auxin?
A
Apical Meristematic tissue
B
Lateral Meristematic tissue
C
Xylem
D
Intercalary Meristematic tissue
17. When a ray of light passes through the optical centre of a spherical lens, it _______.
A
Gets deviated away from the normal
B
Bends toward the focus
C
Emerges undeviated
D
Always reflects back
18. The IUPAC name of following compound is _________. CH 3 CHBrCH 2 CH 2 CH 3 .
A
2-Bromopentene
B
1-Bromopentane
C
3-Bromopentane
D
2-Bromopentane
19. Which of the following statements is correct about reproduction?
A
Both statements are correct.
B
Both statements are false.
C
Statement 2 is correct but Statement 1 is false.
D
Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is false.
20. Which of the following conditions will NOT increase the rate of evaporation?
A
Increased Surface Area
B
Increased Temperature
C
Decreased Wind Speed
D
Decreased Humidity
21. Which gas is used by animals to live under water?
A
Dry carbon dioxide
B
Nitrogen
C
Carbon dioxide
D
Dissolved oxygen
22. Plaster of Paris is prepared by heating which of the following?
A
Limestone
B
Gypsum
C
Baking soda
D
Slaked lime
23. In the following reaction, Fe + CuSO ₄ → FeSO ₄ + Cu, iron:
A
is unchanged
B
acts a catalyst
C
is oxidised
D
is reduced
24. Which of the following quantities represents the slope in a displacement–time graph?
A
Distance
B
Acceleration
C
Linear velocity
D
Speed
25. In Spirogyra, each fragment develops into a complete individual. What can be the possible reason for this?
A
Each cell is capable of independent growth.
B
Each fragment has roots.
C
Each fragment has complex organs.
D
Fragmentation happens only under laboratory conditions.
26. A car travels for 180 km at a speed of 60 km/hr and then returns along the same route at a speed of 45 km/hr. By how many minutes is the return journey longer than the onward journey?
A
80 min
B
60 min
C
15 min
D
120 min
27. The arithmetic mean of the observations 65, 41, 96, 44, 38, 30, 79, 90 and 21 is:
A
64
B
56
C
59
D
62
28. A sum of money is to be distributed among A, B, C and D in the ratio 6 : 7 : 17 : 19. If C gets ₹250 more than B, then how much did A receive?
A
₹149
B
₹147
C
₹148
D
₹150
29. Two-fifth of Vijay’s marks in Hindi are more than one-third of his marks in Sanskrit by 5, while five times his marks in Hindi and five times his marks in Sanskrit together are equal to 310. Find his marks in Sanskrit.
A
25
B
35
C
31
D
27
30. The number of prime numbers lying between 480 and 489 is:
A
2
B
1
C
3
D
0
31. Navya and Bhavya can paint a house in 50 days and 75 days, respectively. If they work on alternate days, starting with Bhavya, in how many days can the duo complete painting that house?
A
59 days
B
60 days
C
63 days
D
55 days
32. One pipe can fill a tank in 4 minutes while another pipe can empty the completely filled tank in 8 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how many minutes will it take to fill one-fourth of the tank?
A
4
B
8
C
6
D
2
33. What is the difference between the simple interest on a principal of ₹3,600 being calculated at 15% per annum for 3 years and 14% per annum for 4 years?
A
₹406
B
₹416
C
₹386
D
₹396
34. A cylindrical pipe, open at both ends, has an external diameter of 20 cm and an internal diameter of 16 cm. If the length of the pipe is 35 cm, find the volume of the metal used in making the pipe. (Use π = 22/7)
A
3360 cm³
B
3080 cm³
C
3520 cm³
D
3960 cm³
35. The length of the shadow of a vertical tower is equal to its height. Find the angle of elevation.
A
45°
B
75°
C
30°
D
60°
36. A person's income and expenditure are in the ratio 9 ∶ 5. His income rises by 60% while his expenditure falls by 10%. If his initial expenditure was ₹15,500, then what will be his final saving (in ₹)?
A
39,600
B
30,960
C
30,690
D
36,900
37. A vendor offers her customers a discount of 29% on her beauty products and she still makes a profit of 12%. What is the cost price (in ₹) of a beauty product marked at ₹896?
A
574
B
568
C
622
D
721
38.
A
4 : 5
B
1 : 5
C
2 : 3
D
3 : 4
39. A train passes two tunnels of length 2091 m and 1259 m in 89 seconds and 63 seconds, respectively. What is the length of the train?
A
747 m
B
759 m
C
748 m
D
757 m
40. The ratio of the present ages of P and Q is 4 : 3. Six years later, the ratio will be 5 : 4. Find the difference between their present ages.
A
8 years
B
6 years
C
10 years
D
4 years
41. The sides of a triangle are 148 cm, 57 cm, and 175 cm. What is the length (in cm) of its altitude corresponding to the side with a length of 57 cm?
A
121
B
188
C
140
D
177
42. Sachin got a new curtain at 12% discount. If Sachin did not get any discount, Sachin would have to pay ₹747 extra. So how much did Sachin pay for the curtain?
A
₹5,480
B
₹5,476
C
₹5,478
D
₹5,479
43. A person saves 60% of his income. If his expenditure is ₹600, then his income (in ₹) is:
A
1,500
B
1,540
C
1,360
D
1,240
44. A class of 91 students took a Physics test. 12 students had an average score of 64. The other students had an average score of 77. What is the average score (rounded up to one decimal place) of the whole class?
A
79.4
B
79.7
C
73.6
D
75.3
45. The cost of a washing machine is 25% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the washing machine increases by 34% and that of the TV decreases by 21%, then what is the percentage change in the total cost of 4 washing machines and 2 TVs?
A
Increase by 19%
B
Increase by 12%
C
Decrease by 16%
D
Decrease by 9%
46. If A : B = 4 : 6 and B : C = 7 : 12, then A : B : C is:
A
14 : 21 : 36
B
4 : 7 : 9
C
11 : 23 : 4
D
4 : 31 : 21
47. Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, I, J and K, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the same order. Only B is kept above I. Only C is kept between I and J. Only A is kept below K. How many boxes are kept between D and A?
A
Four
B
Three
C
Two
D
One
48. Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) 2 6 & 2 9 5 5 € 1 $ 1 6 @ & € # 3 @ £ % 4 9 (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Four
D
One
49. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (14, 98, 7) (6, 36, 6)
A
(7, 49, 8)
B
(5, 25, 7)
C
(12, 72, 6)
D
(8, 48, 7)
50. Refer to the given number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) 6 8 5 2 4 9 1 6 3 2 7 1 6 9 3 8 5 4 2 1 7 8 6 5 9 7 2 (Right) How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
One
B
More than three
C
Three
D
Two
51. Atul starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards west. He then takes a left turn, drives 8 km, turns left and drives 15 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 16 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 6 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
A
7 km to the north
B
7 km to the south
C
8 km to the north
D
8 km to the south
52. Refer to the given number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) 3 3 9 5 9 1 5 5 4 2 6 9 5 5 8 5 3 2 8 6 7 6 3 6 4 9 1 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
2
B
5
C
6
D
4
53. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 9 12 10 13 11 ? 12
A
14
B
9
C
10
D
15
54. Each of the digits in the number 5236789 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the original number?
A
Three
B
Four
C
Six
D
Five
55. In a certain code language, ‘SKATE’ is coded as ‘51324’ and ‘ASKEW’ is coded as ‘47315’. What is the code for ‘W’ in the given code language? 3475
A
4
B
7
C
5
D
3
56. Gautam starts from Point Y and drives 34 km towards the east. He then takes a right turn, drives 68 km, turns right and drives 55 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 11 km. He takes a right turn, drives 81 km. He then turns left, drives 57 km and stops at Point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point Y again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
A
59 km towards the east
B
63 km towards the west
C
61 km towards the east
D
60 km towards the west
57. L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Q sits second to the right of O. L sits second to the left of N. M is on the immediate left of Q. Who is sitting on the immediate right of P?
A
Q
B
M
C
L
D
N
58. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
MR-OK
B
OT-QM
C
KP-MJ
D
QV-SO
59. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
NIG
B
RML
C
SNM
D
VQP
60. A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting in a straight line, facing the north. Only three people sit to the left of D. Only A sits to the right of C. Only three people sit between C and B. X sits at some place to the left of Y but at some place to the right of W. How many people sit between W and Y?
A
Three
B
Two
C
One
D
Four
61. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 842 844 848 854 862 ? 4222
A
874
B
878
C
876
D
872
62. D, E, F, G, L, M and N are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only three people sit between L and N. E sits to the immediate left of N. No one sits to the right of F. Only two people sit between F and E. M sits to the immediate right of D. How many people sit between G and M?
A
Three
B
Two
C
Four
D
One
63. In a certain code language, 'cloud is dark' is coded as 'dm ht ez' and 'the blue cloud' is coded as 'tz dm cm'. How is 'cloud' coded in that language?
A
cm
B
tz
C
ez
D
dm
64. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? TGA, UID, VKG, WMJ, ?
A
YON
B
ZPN
C
XOM
D
ZLM
65. If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘x’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘-‘ , what will come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation? 43 C 80 A 8 D 6 B 5 = ?
A
22
B
24
C
23
D
21
66. If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 28 − 19 ÷ 23 + 96 × 3 = ?
A
517
B
541
C
523
D
508
67. Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from Left to Right only. (Left) 7 6 1 8 4 3 9 2 7 5 8 3 4 1 6 (Right) How many such prime numbers are there, which are immediately followed by a prime number?
A
One
B
Two
C
More than three
D
Three
68. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? GLO163, RWZ145, CHK127, NSV109, ?
A
YUG91
B
ZDG91
C
YDH91
D
YDG91
69. In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. KIND - NKID - DNIK COST - SCOT - TSOC
A
LAST - SLAT - ASTL
B
ZONE - OZNE - EONZ
C
SIGN - SGIN - NGIS
D
FROM - OFRM - MORF
70. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All ostriches are crows. Some ostriches are pigeons. Some pigeons are sparrows. Conclusions: (I) Some crows are pigeons. (II) Some ostriches are sparrows.
A
Neither I nor II follows
B
Only II follows
C
Only I follows
D
Both I and II follow
71. PM 3 is related to KP 17 in a certain way. In the same way, NK 6 is related to IN 20. To which of the given options is TK 4 related, following the same logic?
A
NJ 12
B
UY 14
C
GY 13
D
ON 18
72. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All blinders are curtains. All curtains are dividers. Conclusions: (I) Some dividers are curtains. (II) All blinders are dividers.
A
Only conclusion (II) follows.
B
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
C
Only conclusion (I) follows.
D
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
73. Gaurav ranked 13 th from the top and 33 th from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in the class?
A
33
B
35
C
45
D
43
74. GB 15 is related to LF 12 in a certain way. In the same way, MH 20 is related to RL 17. To which of the following is PK 26 related, following the same logic?
A
WQ 24
B
VN 23
C
UO 23
D
UN 24
75. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 19 36 53 70 87 ?
A
104
B
103
C
102
D
101
76. In a certain code language, ‘A ? B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’ ‘A = B’ means ‘A is the son of B’ ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ ‘A √ B’ means ‘ A is the sister of B’ Based on the above, how is C related to L if 'C @ D = E √ F ? L'?
A
Daughter's husband
B
Father
C
Husband
D
Sister's husband
77. Which hockey legend received a Padma Award in 2025?
A
PR Sreejesh
B
Dhanraj Pillay
C
Dhanraj Pillay
D
Sandeep Singh
78. Who among the following handed over the first production lots of the 32-bit microprocessor developed for space applications KALPANA3201, to Dr. V. Narayanan, Secretary, DOS /Chairman, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in March 2025?
A
S Krishnan, Secretary, Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY)
B
Jitin Prasada, Minister of State, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
C
Droupadi Murmu, President of India
D
Narendra Modi, Prime Minister of India
79. What is the rank of India in Climate Change Performance Index 2025?
A
10th
B
12th
C
8th
D
14th
80. According to the Union Budget, 2025–26, presented in February 2025, approximately how much fund was allocated for pollution control in India?
A
₹572 crore
B
₹745 crore
C
₹854 crore
D
₹958 crore
81. Which tunnel was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Jammu and Kashmir in January 2025?
A
Howrah tunnel
B
Munnar tunnel
C
Sonamarg tunnel
D
Porbandar tunnel
82. As per Sustainable Development Goals – National Indicator Framework Progress Report, 2025, what was the percentage of waste processed in 2024-25, from 17.97% in 2015-16, indicating significant progress in waste management efficiency in India?
A
45%
B
80.7%
C
55.65%
D
60%
83. Which IAS officer, known for his 57 transfers in his service retired in April 2025?
A
Durga Shakti Nagpal
B
KPS Gill
C
Ashok Khemka
D
Priyam Saroj
84. Which of the following indicators is included in the GoIStats app developed by the government of India in 2025?
A
International Film Awards and Music Industry Data
B
Global Sports Rankings and Olympic Medal Tally
C
National Accounts Statistics and Consumer Price Index
D
Space Mission Launches and Satellite Deployment Data
85. The Reserve Bank of India (Project Finance) Directions, 2025 have/shall come into force with effect from _______.
A
1 September 2025
B
1 August 2025
C
1 November 2025
D
1 October 2025
86. According to the OECD Economic Outlook (Volume 2025 Issue 1), what is the projected OECD-wide inflation rate for 2025?
A
4.8%
B
4.2%
C
3.2%
D
3.7%
87. What is the estimated total foodgrain production in India for 2024–25, as per the Third Advance Estimates by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare?
A
3499.00 LMT
B
3600.20 LMT
C
3539.59 LMT
D
3450.75 LMT
88. In January 2025, which two banks signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Assam government to provide zero-premium insurance coverage to employees?
A
Bank of Baroda and Bank of India
B
Indian Bank and Central Bank of India
C
State Bank of India and Union Bank of India
D
Axis Bank and HDFC Bank
89. Which of the following global cities was officially declared the World Book Capital 2025 by UNESCO in 2025?
A
Rio de Janeiro
B
Accra
C
Madrid
D
Lisbon
90. Which celebrated author released his/her debut crime novel As Dark As Blood in January 2025?
A
Neha Dixit
B
Shariq Us Sabah
C
Banu Mushtaq
D
Yasser Usman
91. Who was awarded the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in January 2025 for chess?
A
D Gukesh
B
Arjun Erigaisi
C
Vidit Gujrathi
D
Viswanathan Anand
92. Which of the following cities hosted the 84 th Annual General Meeting of the Governing Body of the Dattopant Thengadi National Board for Workers Education and Development in March 2025?
A
New Delhi
B
Mumbai
C
Pune
D
Bengaluru
93. Which Indian cricketer was inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame in June 2025?
A
Shikhar Dhawan
B
Mahendra Singh Dhoni
C
Virat Kholi
D
Rohit Sharma
94. Which tennis player broke the record for the most Grand Slam titles in 2025?
A
Jannik Sinner
B
Rafael Nadal
C
Carlos Alcaraz
D
Novak Djokovic
95. Which edition of the India-Mongolia Joint Military Exercise NOMADIC ELEPHANT, was held from 31 May to 13 June 2025 in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia?
A
17th
B
15th
C
19th
D
13th
96. Which city in India has achieved a notable milestone by ranking 6 th worldwide in under- construction data centre capacity, according to Cushman & Wakefield’s 2025 report?
A
Bengaluru
B
Mumbai
C
Hyderabad
D
Delhi "
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