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Group D — Test 13
00:00
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01. Why are sound waves classified as mechanical waves?
A
They cause light oscillations
B
They do not require a medium to travel
C
They are characterised by the motion of particles in a medium
D
They oscillate perpendicular to wave propagation
02. A concave lens has a focal length of 15 cm. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the lens. What is the magnification produced by the lens?
A
+0.66
B
-0.66
C
+0.33
D
-0.33
03. Which of the following was the scientist who blended his knowledge of science and mathematics to arrive at the laws of inheritance?
A
Gregor Johann Mendel
B
John Dalton
C
E Rutherford
D
Camillo Golgi
04. Which of the following factors does NOT increase the rate of evaporation?
A
Increase of temperature
B
Increase in wind speed
C
Increase in humidity
D
Increase in surface area
05. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about DNA copies produced during the process of reproduction?
A
Copying of DNA is a pre-requisite for reproduction.
B
DNA copying is a completely error-free process.
C
DNA copies generated are similar but not identical.
D
DNA copies are single stranded.
06. Which of the following correctly describes the sequence of events leading to muscle movement?
A
DNA replication → Protein synthesis → Muscle movement
B
Digestion → Blood circulation → Movement
C
Nerve impulse → Muscle protein response → Muscle contraction
D
Blood flow → Protein activation → Nerve impulse → Movement
07. When gypsum is heated at 373 K, it loses water of crystallisation and forms _________.
A
calcium sulphate hemihydrate
B
calcium sulphate pentahydrate
C
calcium chloride hemihydrate
D
calcium chloride pentahydrate
08. What is the formula to calculate the acceleration due to gravity (g), where G is the universal gravitational constant, M is the mass of the Earth, and R is the radius of the Earth?
A
g=GM/R2
B
g=GM/R
C
g=GM2/R
D
g=GR/M2
09. Which of the following best defines an ion?
A
An atom with equal number of protons and electrons
B
A molecule with more neutrons than protons
C
An atom or group of atoms that has a positive or negative charge
D
A neutral particle formed by the combination of atoms
10. Which of the following correctly explains the importance of pH in everyday life?
A
Acid rain has pH greater than 7, which harms aquatic life.
B
Our stomach secretes hydrochloric acid to maintain a pH around 2, aiding digestion.
C
Tooth enamel dissolves when the pH of the mouth rises above 7.5 due to bacterial activity.
D
A bee sting injects a basic liquid, so it is treated with a weak acid like vinegar.
11. Which of the following conditions will NOT favour evaporation?
A
High Wind Speed
B
Low Humidity
C
High Humidity
D
High Temperature
12. Which of the following organs in human females can produce hormones?
A
Salivary glands
B
Cervix
C
Ovaries
D
Fallopian tubes
13. Which of the following statements best explains kinetic energy?
A
It is the energy an object has because it is at rest.
B
It is the energy stored in an object due to its shape.
C
It is the energy an object has because of its motion, and it increases as the object's speed increases.
D
It is the energy that decreases as the object's speed increases.
14. Cells of the meristematic tissue lack vacuoles because:
A
Meristematic cells are actively dividing and need a dense cytoplasm
B
Meristematic cells are dead and do not need vacuoles
C
Vacuoles cause cell death
D
Vacuoles block respiratory enzymes
15. What is the main function of leucoplasts in plant cells?
A
Giving colour to flowers
B
Storing materials like starch, oils, and proteins
C
Breaking down waste materials
D
Absorbing sunlight
16. Which of the following organs is involved in the function of reflex action?
A
Kidney
B
Middle ear
C
Spleen
D
Spinal cord
17. How do plant cells respond immediately to a stimulus without specialized proteins like animal muscle cells?
A
By secreting enzymes only
B
By producing immune responses
C
By changing water content to cause swelling or shrinking
D
By breaking down food to release energy instantly
18. Among the following materials, which one has the highest electrical resistivity at room temperature?
A
Iron
B
Chromium
C
Manganese
D
Mercury
19. Which of the following statements is correct for the magnetic field inside a long, straight, current-carrying solenoid?
A
It increases as we move towards its end.
B
It is zero.
C
It is the same at all points.
D
It decreases as we move towards its end.
20. Baking soda is prepared using which of the following processes?
A
Solvay process
B
Haber process
C
Deacon's process
D
Chlor-alkali process
21. Which of the following statements is correct for uniform motion?
A
The slope of the distance–time graph is constant.
B
The slope of the distance–time graph is zero.
C
The slope of the distance–time graph is decreasing.
D
The slope of the distance–time graph is increasing.
22. Which of the following statements is correct about the nature of the image formed by a concave mirror when the object is placed between the principal focus and the pole?
A
Real, inverted, same size
B
Real, inverted, diminished
C
Virtual, erect, magnified
D
Real, inverted, highly diminished (point image)
23. What unique property of carbon atoms enables them to form long and stable chains with other carbon atoms?
A
Catenation
B
Isomerism
C
Allotropy
D
Tetravalency
24. A shopkeeper buys 20 pens for ₹600 and sells them for ₹900. Find his profit percentage.
A
50%
B
15%
C
33.33%
D
40%
25. A vendor offers her customers a discount of 24% on her beauty products and she still makes a profit of 22%. What is the cost price (in ₹) of a beauty product marked at ₹854?
A
532
B
573
C
586
D
576
26. A number is 18 more than its three-fourth. Find the number.
A
36
B
54
C
72
D
42
27. When the volume of a sphere is divided by its surface area, the result is 7 cm. Find the surface area.
A
4896 cm2
B
5274 cm2
C
5544 cm2
D
5088 cm2
28. Srikar spends 10% of his monthly income on rent, 20% of the rest on household expenditure and 25% of the rest on food and saves the rest. He finally saves ₹78,300. Find his monthly income. 7083
A
₹1,78,300
B
₹1,50,000
C
₹1,45,000
D
₹1,00,000
29. The average age of 31 students of a class is 14 years. If the age of the teacher is also included, the average age of the whole group becomes 15 years. The age (in years) of the teacher is:
A
46
B
49
C
45
D
47
30. To buy a new apartment, Shweta borrowed ₹9,95,500 at 4% per annum simple interest for 39 months. How much interest will she pay?
A
₹1,39,545
B
₹1,29,415
C
₹1,29,665
D
₹1,15,995
31. A 140-metre-long train crosses a platform thrice its length in 56 seconds. What is the speed of the train in km/hr?
A
36
B
26
C
40
D
33
32. 8 men or 9 women can do a job in 2 days. 8 men work for 1 day and leave. The number of women required to complete the remaining work in 9 days is:
A
2
B
3
C
1
D
4
33. The volume (in m 3 ) of a cuboidal tank with dimensions 2 m × 11 m × 49 m is:
A
1102
B
1049
C
1061
D
1078
34. If the listed price of a bag is 93% more than its cost price and a discount of 59% is announced on it, then find the loss percentage.
A
24.87%
B
20.89%
C
23.12%
D
20.87%
35. If 20% of a number is added to 72, then the result is the same number. 65% of the same number is:
A
88.5
B
58.5
C
78.5
D
68.5
36. P is any point inside the rectangle ABCD. If PA = 46 cm, PB = 16 cm and PC = 88 cm, then the length of PD (in cm) is equal to:
A
100
B
98
C
94
D
96
37.
A
2(3x − 17)
B
2(6x + 17)
C
2(6x − 17)
D
2(3x + 17)
38. 3172
A
57 minutes
B
56 minutes
C
48 minutes
D
42 minutes
39. If Anirudh is as much elder than Praveen as he is younger than Suman and the sum of the ages of Praveen and Suman is 36 years, then find the age of Anirudh.
A
9 years
B
24 years
C
18 years
D
12 years
40. In a class test, the average score of 35 students was 44. Later, it was found that 25 was incorrectly recorded as 33 in two instances, and 36 was incorrectly recorded as 34 in one instance. What is the actual average score of the class?
A
42.6
B
41.6
C
43.6
D
44.6
41. The total number of colour blocks is 4641. If the ratio of red blocks to blue blocks is 6 : 10 and the ratio of blue blocks to yellow blocks is 2 : 7, then how many yellow blocks are there?
A
3155
B
3185
C
3148
D
3149
42. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 2, 20 and 5 days respectively. How long (in days) will they take to do thrice the same work, working together?
A
5
B
12
C
8
D
4
43. 2 men can do a piece of work in 2 days. How many men will do it in 1 day?
A
5
B
3
C
2
D
4
44. The cost of a washing machine is 50% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the washing machine increases by 62% and that of the TV decreases by 51%, then what is the percentage change in the total cost of 6 washing machines and 2 TVs?
A
Increase by 16.8%
B
Decrease by 19%
C
Increase by 17%
D
Decrease by 21%
45. Dev and Tej started a business, investing amounts of ₹1,800 and ₹1,620, respectively. If Dev's share in the profit earned by them is ₹930, what is the total profit (in ₹) earned by them together?
A
1,753
B
1,788
C
1,869
D
1,767
46. Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers only. (Left) © @ 7 € $ 5 $ & * & 7 5 2 $ 8 $ © 7 © 4 6 £ (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A
Three
B
Two
C
Five
D
Four
47. Five people, A, B, C, D and E, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people sit between A and B. B sits between D and E. E sits second to the left of A. Who sits at the extreme left end of the row?
A
B
B
E
C
C
D
D
48. In a code language, A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’ A - B means ‘A is the father of B’ A x B means ‘A is the mother of B’ A ÷ B means ‘A is the brother of B’ Based on the above, how is P related to E if ‘P - Q + C x D ÷ E’?
A
Mother’s brother
B
Father’s father
C
Mother’s father
D
Father’s brother
49. A, B, C, D, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. C sits fourth to the right of X. Only two people sit between Y and W when counted from the left of Y. D sits third to the left of B. A is an immediate neighbour of B and W. How many people between C and A when counted from the left of A?
A
One
B
Four
C
Two
D
Three
50. Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only) Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 4 3 5 2 9 7 2 8 7 2 1 8 7 4 5 5 2 3 5 5 6 9 6 3 3 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
A
Three
B
Four
C
One
D
Two
51. Seven boxes, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the same order. Only two boxes are kept below S. Only one box is kept above Q. Only one box is kept between Q and P. R is kept immediately above N. O is kept at some place below M. How many boxes are kept between M and R?
A
Two
B
Four
C
Three
D
One
52. Each of the digits in the number 9612345 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. What will be the sum of the digits that are second from the left and second from the right in the new number thus formed?
A
7
B
6
C
8
D
9
53. Naksh ranked 45 th from the top and 27 th from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in his class?
A
73
B
72
C
70
D
71
54. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
NO - JK
B
QR - MN
C
LM - HI
D
HJ - DL
55. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (12, 240, 20) (10, 150, 15)
A
(8, 90, 15)
B
(15, 225, 16)
C
(8, 100, 15)
D
(9, 180, 20)
56. Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? TIU 20 VKW 21 XMY 22 ZOA 23 ?
A
BRC 24
B
DQB 24
C
BQC 24
D
CQC 24
57. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 27 51 75 99 123 ?
A
146
B
147
C
145
D
148
58. Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 1 4 6 9 3 7 1 1 1 9 2 9 5 4 5 3 2 4 6 1 9 9 1 9 5 2 5 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number? 15225
A
10
B
11
C
9
D
8
59. If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 3674185, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
A
Three
B
None
C
Two
D
One
60. Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given below. Both triads follow the same pattern. WP-SL-OR TM-PI-LO
A
RJ-MF-IK
B
RJ-ME-IK
C
QJ-MF-IL
D
QJ-MF-IK
61. Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. GHI−FGH KLM−JKL
A
BBB−ZAB
B
BCD−ZBB
C
BCD−ABC
D
BBB−ABC
62. Hitesh starts from Point A and drives 13 km towards the south. He then takes a right turn, drives 4 km, turns right and drives 14 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 9 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 1 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
A
6 km to the east
B
5 km to the west
C
5 km to the east
D
6 km to the west
63. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 11 13 16 21 ? 39
A
25
B
28
C
22
D
29
64. Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A
OS – WY
B
AE – HJ
C
EI – LN
D
TX – AC
65. Arman starts from point A and drives 44 km towards south. He then takes a left turn, drives 42 km, turns left and drives 51 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 56 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 7 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again? (Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
A
13 km to the east
B
11 km to the west
C
14 km to the east
D
12 km to the west
66. Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two set of pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. MOS−QSW RTX−VXB 6446
A
KMQ−OQU
B
KLO−NPT
C
KLO−OQU
D
KMQ−NQT
67. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All goats are lions. All lions are dogs Conclusion (I): All dogs are goats. Conclusion (II): Some lions are goats.
A
Only conclusion (I) follows.
B
Only conclusion (II) follows.
C
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
D
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
68. Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series? CCP FDN IEL ? OGH
A
LFJ
B
PLO
C
UUY
D
HJY
69. In a certain code language, ‘MOVE’ is coded as ‘7481’ and ‘OVER’ is coded as ‘8314’. What is the code for ‘R’ in that language?
A
8
B
1
C
3
D
4
70. Refer to the number series given below and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (NOTE: All numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Left) 5 2 4 8 8 7 2 3 3 3 6 7 5 6 6 8 9 4 1 5 1 7 7 3 3 7 5 (Right) How many such odd numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
A
3
B
2
C
1
D
4
71. A group of numbers/symbols is coded using letter codes as per the codes given below and the conditions that follow. The correct combination of codes following the conditions is your answer. Note: If none of the conditions apply, then the codes for the respective number/symbol are to be followed directly as given in the table. Conditions: (i) If the first element is a symbol and the last element a perfect square, the codes for these two (the first and last elements) are to be interchanged. (ii) If both the second and third elements are symbols, the third element is to be coded as the code for the second element. (iii) If the first element is a symbol and the fourth element is an odd number, the first and fourth elements are to be coded as ©. What will be the code for the following group? % 5 * & 9
A
© Y G © B
B
T Y F F B
C
T Y G F B
D
B Y G F T
72. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some hair are nails. All nails are teeth. Conclusions (I): Some hair are teeth. Conclusions (II): All teeth are nails.
A
Only conclusion (II) follows.
B
Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
C
Only conclusion (I) follows.
D
Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
73. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 893 895 899 905 913 ?
A
921
B
923
C
924
D
922
74. If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 6437585, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
A
None
B
Two
C
One
D
Three
75. A, B, C, E, F, P, and Q are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. Only four people sit between C and E, when counted from the right of C. C sits third to the left of P. B sits third to the left of F. Q is an immediate neighbour of both E and P. How many people sit between A and Q, when counted from the right of A?
A
One
B
Three
C
Four
D
Two
76. Which among the community-focused transparency initiatives did the Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh police introduce in September 2025?
A
'Police Outreach Day' to resolve neighborhood safety concerns
B
'Public Accountability Meet' releasing monthly action reports
C
'Jan Sunwai Sabha' for direct citizen-police dialogue
D
'Vadi Samvad Diwas' allowing citizens to engage directly with investigators
77. As per Sustainable Development Goals – National Indicator Framework Progress Report, 2025, the percentage of population using an improved drinking water source in rural areas increased from 94.57% in 2015-16 to what percentage in 2024-25, indicating significant progress toward universal safe water access in rural India?
A
95.32%
B
99.62%
C
98%
D
96%
78. On 29 June 2025, the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change issued Model Rules to streamline regulations for _______________.
A
tree felling in agricultural lands
B
usage of pesticides and insecticides
C
electricity supply for farmlands
D
interest rates of loans for farmers
79. What percentage of India's areas are earthquake-prone as of March 2025?
A
47%
B
39%
C
73%
D
59%
80. Which of the following countries hosted the 6 th BIMSTEC Summit in April 2025?
A
Thailand
B
Nepal
C
Sri Lanka
D
Bangladesh
81. Which two co-operative banks merged as per Reserve Bank of India's January 2025 notification?
A
National Co-operative Bank and Cosmos Co-operative Bank
B
Maratha Sahakari Bank and Janata Co-operative Bank
C
Saraswat Co-operative Bank and Cosmos Co-operative Bank
D
PMC Co-operative Bank and Cosmos Co-operative Bank
82. When was the 48 th edition of the Paris Marathon held?
A
March 30
B
April 1
C
May 1
D
April 13
83. Which Indian broke the 200 m national record at Asian Athletics Championships 2025?
A
Gurindervir Singh
B
Manikanta Hoblidhar
C
Animesh Kujur
D
Amlan Borgohain
84. Which Kannada short-story collection became the first-ever to win the International Booker Prize in 2025?
A
Heart Lamp: Selected Stories
B
The Many Lives of Syeda X
C
Theory & Practice
D
Once Elephants Lived Here
85. How many new Khelo India Centres are planned by the Delhi Government in 2025?
A
6
B
10
C
4
D
2
86. Which edition of SIMBEX (Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise) was held in Singapore in July 2025?
A
52nd
B
42nd
C
32nd
D
22nd
87. In which of the following states of India was the foundation stone laid in August 2025 for the Brahma–BEML Rail Manufacturing Hub, expected to reduce unemployment and empower local youth?
A
Madhya Pradesh
B
Uttar Pradesh
C
Bihar
D
Gujarat
88. What was the name of the initiative launched by the Indian Prime Minister on World Environment Day in 2025?
A
Clean India Campaign 7.0
B
Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam 2.0
C
Green Earth Project 3.0
D
Save Water Mission
89. As per the Economic Survey, 2024–25, which mission is part of India’s Space Vision, 2047, for human spaceflight?
A
Vikram
B
Samudrayaan
C
Mangalyaan
D
Gaganyaan
90. On which date was the International Day of Families 2025 observed globally, focusing on the role of digital technology in family life?
A
May 18
B
May 15
C
May 10
D
May 12
91. Which NFL player won the BET Sportsman of the Year Award 2025?
A
Josh Allen
B
Jalen Hurts
C
Patrick Mahomes
D
Lamar Jackson
92. Which of the following trophies was renamed the Anderson‑Tendulkar Trophy in June 2025?
A
ODI Trophy
B
IPL Trophy
C
T20 Trophy
D
Test series trophy
93. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Bills was passed by the 17 th Lok Sabha of India on 17 December 2024?
A
126th
B
78th
C
129th
D
88th
94. Which spacecraft will be used for Axiom‑4?
A
Orion
B
Starliner
C
Crew Dragon C213
D
Soyuz MS-24
95. As of 30 April 2025, the ‘GenomeIndiaA’ project has completed whole genome sequencing (WGS) database of approximately how many individuals?
A
10,000
B
6600
C
8000
D
11,000 "
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